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Test Bank For Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 7th Edition VanMeter and Hubert Chapter 1-28 | Complete Guide A+ $17.99   Add to cart

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Test Bank For Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 7th Edition VanMeter and Hubert Chapter 1-28 | Complete Guide A+

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Test Bank For Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 7th Edition VanMeter and Hubert Chapter 1-28 | Complete Guide A+

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  • March 4, 2023
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Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C

2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B

3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C

4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B

5. Etiology is defined as the study of the
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A

6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.

ANS: D

7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic
figures would be called

, a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
ANS: C

8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called
a. apoptosis.
b. ischemia.
c. hypertrophy.
d. necrosis.
ANS: B

9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
a. ischemia.
b. gangrene.
c. hypoxia.
d. necrosis.
ANS: D

10. Rigorous weightlifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells
undergoing
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.
ANS: A

11. The term cancer refers to
a. dysplasia.
b. hyperplasia.
c. metaplasia.
d. malignant neoplasm.
ANS: D

12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
ANS: D
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
b. Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c. All types of cells die at the same rate.
d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
ANS: B

14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where
a. cell proteins have been denatured.

, b. cells are liquefied by enzymes.
c. dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d. bacterial invasion has occurred.
ANS: C

15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.
ANS: B

16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
a. latent stage.
b. predisposing factor.
c. incidence.
d. precipitating factor.
ANS: D

17. The term homeostasis refers to
a. the causative factors in a particular disease.
b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. a collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B

18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the
original disease has been established?
a. Symptoms
b. Occurrence
c. Manifestations
d. Complication
ANS: D

19. Pathophysiology involves the study of
a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.

d. various cell structures and related functions.
ANS: C

20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
d. The global search for emerging diseases
ANS: A

,21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
1. Hypoxia
2. Exposure to excessive cold
3. Excessive pressure on a tissue
4. Chemical toxins
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D

22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a. Follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. Use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. Participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. Choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
ANS: C

23. The term disease refers to
a. the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B

24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that
usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a(an)
a. acute disease.
b. multiorgan disorder.
c. syndrome.
d. manifestation.
ANS: C

25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to
recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes
irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
ANS: D

26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person
administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who
is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment
knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.

, ANS: A

27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased
effectiveness and is safe, this is called
a. the placebo effect.
b. evidence-based research.
c. blind research studies.
d. approval for immediate distribution.
ANS: B

28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is
called
a. acute.
b. latent.
c. chronic.
d. manifestation.
ANS: A

29. The term prognosis refers to the
a. period of recovery and return to a normal state.
b. expected outcome of the disease.
c. mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. typical collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B

30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
a. atrophy.
b. liquefactive necrosis.
c. apoptosis.
d. infarction.
ANS: D

31. During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double blind
study may be conducted during
a. the first stage.
b. the second stage.
c. the third stage.
d. any of these stages.
ANS: C

32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventive measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics
ANS: C

33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
a. abnormal metabolic processes.
b. certain food additives.

, c. genetic defects.
d. localized hypoxia.
ANS: B

34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. Past illnesses or surgeries
2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. Current allergies
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ANS: D

35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease
within a given area is called a/an
a. epidemic.
b. exacerbation.
c. morbidity.
d. pandemic.
ANS: A

36. The term pathogenesis refers to
a. the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes
involved in the disease process.
b. the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant
neoplasm.
c. the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a
chronic disease.

, d. the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
ANS: A

37. A therapy that has been approved for use and may show additional potential to treat a
different disease is termed “ ” use.
a. over-the-counter
b. off-label
c. additional
d. conditional
ANS: B

38. A potential unwanted outcome of a primary condition, such as paralysis following the
recovery from a stroke, is referred to as
a. complication.
b. convalescence.
c. sequelae.
d. postcondition.
ANS: C

39. An infectious disease that spreads over wide regions of the globe is called a(an)
a. pandemic.
b. endemic.
c. epidemic.
d. periodic.
ANS: A

40. The type of necrosis that occurs when cell proteins are altered or denatured is referred to as
a. liquefaction necrosis.
b. coagulative necrosis.
c. degenerative necrosis.
d. caseous necrosis.
ANS: B

,Chapter 02: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition


MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male
adult’s body:
a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 70%
ANS: C

2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male’s body:
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 4%
ANS: D

3. Which of the following is NOT part of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
a. Blood
b. Cytoplasm
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Transcellular fluid
ANS: B

4. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through
a. perspiration only.
b. feces only.
c. perspiration and expiration.
d. urine and feces.
ANS: C

5. The osmoreceptor cells controlling the thirst mechanism are located in the
a. medulla oblongata.
b. thalamus.
c. epithalamus.
d. hypothalamus.
ANS: D

6. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the
a. blood into the cells.
b. interstitial compartment into the cells.
c. interstitial compartment into the blood.

, d. cells into the interstitial compartment.
ANS: C

7. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
a. Increased osmotic pressure
b. Decreased osmotic pressure
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure
d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
ANS: B

8. Which of the following would cause edema?
a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure
c. Decreased capillary permeability
d. Increased capillary permeability
ANS: D

9. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading?
a. Fluid excess
b. Fluid deficit
c. Increased sodium level
d. Decreased erythrocytes
ANS: B

10. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
a. Rapid, strong pulse
b. Low hematocrit
c. Increased urine output
d. Rough oral mucosa
ANS: D

11. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume
combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
a. Dehydration
b. Third-spacing
c. Hypovolemia
d. Water retention
ANS: B

12. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
ANS: A

, 13. Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
a. Loss of the thirst mechanism
b. Excessive sweating
c. Excessive aldosterone secretion
d. Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
ANS: B

14. Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
a. Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps
b. Oliguria
c. Elevated serum pH
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
ANS: D

15. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
b. Increased activation of vitamin D
c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
d. Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
ANS: C

16. Which of the following results from hypocalcemia?
1. Low serum phosphate levels
2. Nausea and constipation
3. Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms
4. Weak cardiac contractions
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4
ANS: D

17. Which of the following causes tetany?
a. Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium
b. Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms
d. Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex
ANS: A

18. Parestesia is an effect of
a. hyperkalemia.
b. hypokalemia.
c. hyponatremia.
d. hypernatremia.
ANS: B

19. In which of the following processes is the phosphate ion NOT a major component?

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