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Question bank pharm 2021 pharmacolo msn571
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Question bank pharm 2021 pharmacolo msn5711. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed
ferrous sulfate?
a. Iron compounds are not taken orally
b. Iron does not absorb
c. Iron should only be taken at night
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
2. Which is the most common type of
anemia? a. Iron deficiency
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. B12 deficiency
3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined
with trimethoprim?
a. Fluroquinolones
b. Cephalosporins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Sulfonamides
4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects
b. Beta-1 selective
c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking
d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer
disease? a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin)
b. Hormonal therapy
c. Corticosteroids
d. Opioids
6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?
a. Macrolides
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Cephalosporins
e. Fluroquinolones
7. Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Angina
e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)
8. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management?
a. Clonidine primary
b. Beta blockers primary
c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary
d. ACE-I primary
,Question bank pharm 2021 pharmacolo msn571
e. ARB primary
9. Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic?
a. Penicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Amikacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
10. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Aspirin
c. Corticosteroids
d. Amoxicillin
11. Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in
the development of pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Tetracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Amoxicillin
12. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease?
a. Avoid diuretics
b. Avoid antibiotics
c. Avoid proton pump
inhibitors d. Avoid NSAIDs
13. Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board
of Pharmacy, depending on the state.
a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is most true of nurse practitioner prescribers?
a. Prescriptive authority is under the full control of the Board of Nursing in all states
b. All states allow nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances
c. Al states allow some level of prescription writing by nurse
practitioners
d. None of the choices are correct
15. Which of the following is a non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice?
a. Malathoin (Ovide)
b. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia)
c. Permethrin 1% (Nix)
d. Lindane shampoo
16. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with
Nystatin? a. Onychomycosis
b. Vaginal candidiasis
c. Intestinal candidiasis
d. Oral candidiasis
17. All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except?
a. Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years
of age
,Question bank pharm 2021 pharmacolo msn571
b. Treatment of scabies include crotaminton, malathion, and lindane
c. Lindane, though usually effective, carries a risk for toxicity and should not be used
in children
d. Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) is the drug of choice for the treatment of scabies
in infants greater than 2 months, and approved to use in pregnant women
18. A pediatric patient prescribed ampicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis reports new onset of
pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck. Which action is most important
for the provider to take to minimize this patient’s risk for injury?
a. Prescribe an antihistamine for the itching
b. Flag all medical records with an “Allergy to Penicillin” notice
c. Prescribe azithromycin to replace
ampicillin d. Discontinue the ampicillin
19. The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period of time when there is the greatest
concern about drug-induced:
a. Fetal hemorrhage
b. Labor
c. Fetal malformations
d. Fetal cardiac arrest
20. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors – cough
b. Isotretinoin – multiple defects of CNS, craniofacial, and cardiovascular
c. Warfarin – Downs syndrome
d. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors – decrease LDL-C
e. NSAIDs – microcephaly
21. The Beers Criteria is utilized with which population of patients?
a. Mental health
b. OB/GYN
c. Geriatrics
d. Pediatrics
22. The drug manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatotoxicity.
Which action is most important when prescribing this medication to an 80-year-old patient?
a. Ensuring that the drug is taken in the correct dose at the correct time
b. Discontinuing the order, the drug is contraindicated for this
patient c. Obtaining baseline liver function studies
d. Giving the medication intravenously to avoid first pass metabolism
23. A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluroquinolone/glucocorticoid
combination medication asks the NP what the benefit is to taking the medications together.
You reply?
a. The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of fluroquinolone
b. The glucocorticoid decreases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance developing to
the fluroquinolone
c. The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and decreases
pain, while the fluroquinolone treats the infection
d. The two medications are contraindicated for use together
, Question bank pharm 2021 pharmacolo msn571
24. Amoxicillin is prescribed for a 12-month-old child who developed a second middle ear infection
since age 8 months. Three days later, the parent calls to report that the child continues to have
a temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of the pain. What action will the
provider take to provide effective care to this child?
a. Advise continuing the amoxicillin as ordered and provide a schedule of PRN dosing
of ibuprofen for pain
b. Discuss with the parent the child’s need for probably surgery for tympanostomy
tubes placement to reduce infections
c. Prescribe a medication that promotes sleep
d. Discuss prescribing amoxicillin/clavulanate with the child’s parents
25. The patient is diagnosed with otitis media with perforated eardrum. You want to prescribe
an otic preparation. Which of the following is not appropriate?
a. Acetic acid otic
b. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone
c. Ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone otic
d. Olfloxacin otic
26. During a recent office visit, your patient is found to have atrial fibrillation. He is being treated
for Graves’ disease. Which new medication will you add to his current treatment regimen?
a. Atenolol (Tenormin)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Warfarin (Coumadin)
d. Cholestyramine (Prevalite)
27. A patient who has been taking warfarin is admitted with coffee-ground emesis. How will
you manage this patient?
a. Administer vitamin K
b. Administer vitamin E
c. Administer calcium gluconate
d. Administer protamine sulfate
28. A bleeding patient receiving warfarin has an INR of 6. What is the best course of
action? a. Administer protamine sulfate
b. Wait for INR to decrease
c. Administer
phytonadione
d. Stop the IV drip
29. Patches are sometimes prescribed to patients. Understanding how often patches are applied,
when to remove them, correct location of patch placement, frequency of dosing, and correct
way to dispose are important counseling points when discussing with your patients. Match
the following medication with the correct frequency of dosing:
a. Rivastigmine (Exelon) once weekly
b. Duragesic once daily
c. Transderm Scop 48 hours
d. Catapres-TTS once weekly
30. Which is the best description of the action of Clonidine?
a. It selectively activates alpha-2 receptors in the central nervous system
b. It causes peripheral activation of alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors
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