EFMB Official Study Guide 2022/23 | 360 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Updated & Verified | 42 Pages
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Course
EFMB
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EFMB
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - >>>>portable x-ray
machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiogr...
EFMB Official Study Guide 2022 /23 The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior -Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radio graphs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - >>>>portable x -ray machine T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - >>>>F What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? - >>>>Role 3 What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x -ray machine? - >>>>Role 2 Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - >>>>lead Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x -ray unit. The recomm ended minimal distance is - >>>>6 feet While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for - >>>>Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of - >>>>98% T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury - >>>>F T/F: At th e Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a handheld portable device. - >>>>T A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand -held machine most commonly using a standard 3 -7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. - >>>>US The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ______________ in certain areas of the body. - >>>>free intraperitoneal fluid When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - >>>>liver and kidney When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are inspec ting between which two organs? - >>>>spleen and kidney An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - >>>>antecubital T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ enhance ment, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - >>>>T T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. - >>>>F T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - >>>>T T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring Freedom. - >>>>F All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of injuries. - >>>>role 3 T/F: P atients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - >>>>F The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - >>>>hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, dif ficulty hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either _____________or _____________. - >>>>temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS) The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury (PBI). - >>>>tympanic membrane (TM) T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - >>>> T The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first ___________ after injury. - >>>>8 weeks Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of facial movement using the _____________ scale. - >>>>House -Brackmann grading T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided regardless of contraindications. - >>>>F Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - >>>>otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops, and activation of subclinical superior semicircular can al dehiscence All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - >>>>be educated and directed to self -report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear? - >>>>treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or oflo xacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days). Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. - >>>>72 T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - >>>>T All p atients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - >>>>have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible. Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive freque ncies should be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated. - >>>>25 dB What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - >>>>comatose patient, symp tomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of hypothermia. - >>>>20% T/F: When providing point of injury c are to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - >>>>F Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of _____. - >>>>nines
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