ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0
All Questions Test’s Review Questions & Answers_ all correct_2022.
Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0: Communicable Diseases - ENA-
ENO-C18
Which person has the highest risk of developing tuberculosis (TB)? - A recent immigrant
from Southeast Asia
During which phase of hepatitis A does the patient reach peak infectivity? - Incubation (preclinical) phase
The appearance of which serologic marker indicates that the hepatitis B is subsiding? - Hepatitis B surface antigen antibodies (Anti-HBs)
Which factor contributes to a nosocomial infection? - Antibiotic resistance
Which type of hepatitis causes arthritis, myalgia, and urticaria or a maculopapular rash?
- Hepatitis B
A patient arrives at triage complaining of fever, night sweats, hemoptysis, and coughing for the last 3 weeks. Which intervention is the priority for this patient? - Move the patient
to a negative-pressure ventilation room.
Which aspect of a patient's history most increases the risk of contracting an opportunistic infection? - Low CD4 counts
Which term describes the presence of the bacteria on a person's body without observable symptoms? - Colonization
Which type of hepatitis has the longest incubation period? - Hepatitis B
Which antibiotic is most effective for treating hospital-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection? - Vancomycin (Vancocin)
Which dosing regimen is recommended for the hepatitis B vaccine? - Three doses, with the second dose 1 month after the first and the third dose in 4 to 6 months
During which phase of hepatitis A does the patient develop fever, anorexia, and diarrhea? - Prodromal (preicteric) phase When do contact precautions for hepatitis A need to occur? - During the first 2 weeks of illness
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, what is the most common
hospital-acquired infection? - Urinary tract infection
Which factor poses the lowest risk of infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)? - Residence in a rural area
Which activity can transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from mother to infant? - Breastfeeding the infant
Which type of hepatitis does not cause chronic hepatitis? - Hepatitis A
Which communicable disease is undiagnosed in 21 percent of those infected in the United States? - Human immunodeficiency virus infection
A vaccine is commercially available for which type of hepatitis? - Hepatitis A
Which population is most likely to be infected with hepatitis C? - Current and former intravenous drug users
Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0: Maxillofacial Trauma
In which type of fracture can bleeding from the middle meningeal artery cause airway obstruction? - Le Fort III
Without proper treatment, trauma in which area can lead to a cauliflower-like deformity? - Ear
When caring for a patient with an orbital blowout fracture, which intervention should you perform early? - Assess visual acuity.
The displacement of the mandible places the patient at risk for which problem? - Airway obstruction
Which complication can result from a zygoma fracture? - Infraorbital nerve anesthesia
Rhinorrhea may result from which type of fracture? - Maxillary
For a patient with a nasal fracture, which intervention is indicated? - Splint the area. A teardrop-shaped pupil is a finding in which disorder? - Ruptured globe
In a patient with a mandibular fracture, which finding can lead to airway compromise? - Sublingual hematoma
Which finding is expected in a patient with a maxillary fracture? - Periorbital swelling
In a patient with a Le Fort II fracture, which method is used to control facial bleeding? - Manual reduction
Which complication can result from a nasal fracture that involves the nasal mucosa of the lacrimal system? - Subcutaneous emphysema
The foreshortening of the nose with telescoping is a finding of which type of fracture? - Naso-orbital-ethmoidal
To prevent epidermal staining, which step should occur first? - Inject the area with a local anesthetic.
To prepare for a facial wound closure, which method is appropriate? - Delay the repair for an uncooperative patient.
In a patient with a naso-orbital-ethmoidal fracture, which finding is expected? - Traumatic telecanthus
What is the maximum time that a facial wound closure can be extended? - 20 hours
During a focused assessment of a patient with facial trauma, the nurse should perform which action? - Look down from the eyebrows to compare the height of the malar eminences.
A laceration in which area requires the alignment of the vermillion border? - Lip
Which complication is associated with a perforated globe? - Intraorbital air
Which type of fracture is most likely to cause trismus? - Mandibular
For a patient with multiple lacerations, a laceration in which area requires repair first? - Eyebrow
The answer is Eyebrow but the test won't accept the answer Lacerations of the eyebrows and eyelids should be repaired initially before swelling occurs so that the borders can be matched. Movement of the upper teeth when they are grasped is a sign of which type of fracture? - Le Fort I
For a patient with a tripod fracture of the zygoma, the nurse should expect which finding? - Diplopia
The ligation of bleeding vessels in the face can lead to which complication? - Nerve damage
Which type of fracture affects the pyramidal area? - Le Fort II
Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0: Child and Elder Maltreatment and Intimate Partner Violence - ENA-ENO-C41
Which approach should the nurse take when caring for a female victim of intimate partner violence? - Offer reassurance that she is not to blame for the battering.
What factor has caused an increase in elder abuse? - Increasing life span of the average person
Which statement accurately describes testifying in court about child maltreatment? - Accurate, clear, and concise documentation is necessary.
Which sign in an elder or dependent adult suggests neglect rather than physical abuse?
- Pressure ulcers
Which finding is the primary complaint of a sexually abused pediatric patient brought to the emergency department? - Anogenital abnormalities
Which presentation is the most suspicious for child abuse? - Burns on the buttocks
For what reason may a victim of intimate partner violence be reluctant to leave the relationship? - The batterer is more violent when they discuss terminating the relationship.
Which term defines an individual, age 18 years or older, who cannot perform or obtain services to meet essential human needs? - Dependent adult
Which disorder can mimic pediatric sexual abuse? - Straddle injury
Which emotion does a perpetrator use to exert control over the victim during intimate partner violence? - Fear
Which factor contributes to a child's failure to thrive? - Parental depression
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller dennys. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for $9.49. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
