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HESI PN OB EXAM PACK
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HESI PN OB EXAMPACK BEST FOR
2022 EXAM REVIEW
2 versions
,1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Epigastric pain: The nurse should notify the provider of the client's report of epigastric pain
because this is a manifestation of preeclampsia. Other findings the nurse should report include
severe headache, blurred vision, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and decreased urinary output.
b. Leukorrhea: Leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is an expected finding throughout pregnancy. Leukorrhea increases
during pregnancy due to hypertrophy of the cervix, which increases the amount of mucus secreted from the vagina.
c. Excessive salivation: Ptyalism, or excessive salivation, is an expected finding in pregnancy. Increased levels of estrogen
cause an increase in the production of saliva.
d. Darkening of the skin on the face: Hyperpigmentation on the face, or melasma, is an expected finding during
pregnancy. The anterior pituitary gland increases the production of melanocyte-stimulating hormone, causing an
increase in pigmentation of the skin.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision 48 hr ago. The nurse should identify
that yellow exudate covering the newborn's glans penis indicates which of the following?
a. Wound infection: Infected circumcision wounds appear swollen with a purulent discharge.
b. Ulceration: Yellow exudate following a circumcision is not a manifestation of an ulceration.
c. Exposure to urine: Yellow exudate is not a manifestation resulting from the wound being exposed to urine.
d. Healing: After 24 hours, yellow exudate usually forms over the glans penis and remains for the
next 2 to 3 days. It sometimes forms a crust, which is expected. The nurse should explain that
the yellow film the guardians will see is granulation tissue as the circumcision heals. The
guardians should not remove this tissue.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the latent phase of labor. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to manage the client's pain?
a. Encourage the client to listen to music: During the latent phase of labor, the nurse should
implement nonpharmacological strategies to encourage relaxation and provide pain relief. There
are a wide variety of cutaneous and sensory measures that are simple to implement during this
stage of labor, such as music, rocking, breathing techniques, walking and application of hot or
cold packs.
b. Instruct the client how to use biofeedback: Biofeedback can be an effective method to reduce the discomfort of labor
by promoting self-awareness and relaxation. However, the client must have received instruction and practiced this
technique prior to labor for it to be effective.
c. Administer fentanyl 100 mcg every hour via intermittent IV bolus…Fentanyl is an opioid agonist analgesic that
enhances a client's ability to rest between contractions. However, opioids can also inhibit uterine contractions and
prolong labor. Therefore, avoid administration of opioid analgesia until a client reaches the active phase of labor or
cervical dilation of at least 4 cm.
, d. Request the provider administer a pudendal nerve block….A pudendal nerve block relieves pain in the lower vagina
and perineum during the second or third stage of labor. It provides anesthesia for episiotomy or repair of lacerations
following birth.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a postpartum client who is receiving warfarin
for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor?
a. WBC count: The nurse should monitor the WBC count for clients who have conditions such as chorioamnionitis.
However, it is not necessary for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy.
b. International normalized ratio (INR): The nurse should monitor the INR of a client who is taking
warfarin. Prothrombin time (PT) is also measured to regulate warfarin therapy. However, PT
values are more difficult to interpret. INR is determined by multiplying the PT by a correction
factor based on the specific thromboplastin preparation used for the test, as a way of equalizing
laboratory-to-laboratory variations.
c. Plasminogen levels: Plasminogen is fibrinolytic and is usually elevated during pregnancy. However, it is not necessary
for the nurse to monitor this level for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy.
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): The nurse should review aPTT if client is receiving heparin.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has preeclampsia prior to
administering labetalol. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the
medication?
a. Uric acid 7.5 mg/dL: The nurse should identify that a uric acid level of 7.5 mg/dL is above the expected reference
range of 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL for a client who is pregnant. Elevated uric acid is a manifestation of preeclampsia and is
caused by decreased renal perfusion. However, an elevated uric acid level is not a contraindication for the
administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication.
b. Heart rate 54/min: The nurse should identify that a heart rate of 54/min is below the expected
reference range of 60 to 100/min. During pregnancy, the heart rate increases 10 to 15/min due
to increased blood volume and increased tissue demands for oxygen. Bradycardia is a
contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an antihypertensive medication. Therefore,
the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
c. FHR 112/min: The nurse should identify that an FHR of 112/min is within the expected reference range of 110 to
160/min. Preeclampsia can cause a decrease in placental perfusion, leading to fetal hypoxia. The nurse should closely
monitor the FHR for manifestations of fetal distress. However, the nurse should not withhold labetalol, an
antihypertensive medication, for this finding.
d. BUN 23 mg/dL: The nurse should identify that a BUN of 23 mg/dL is above the expected reference range of 10 to 20
mg/dL for a client who is pregnant. An elevated BUN is a manifestation of preeclampsia and is caused by decreased
renal perfusion. However, an elevated BUN is not a contraindication for the administration of labetalol, an
antihypertensive medication
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is in labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
a. Decrease in WBC count: Physical and emotional stress can lead to an increased WBC count.
, b. Decrease in blood glucose level: Maternal metabolism, physical exertion, and delivery of the
placenta can lead to a decreased blood glucose level.
c. Decrease in respiratory rate: Anxiety and increased oxygen consumption from physical exertion during labor can lead
to an increased respiratory rate.
d. Decrease in temperature: Vascular changes during labor can lead to an elevated temperature, flushed cheeks, and
warm skin.
7. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth who has meconium-stained
amniotic fluid and exhibits good muscle tone and respiratory efforts. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
a. Dry the newborn: The nurse should dry the newborn to reduce evaporative heat loss; however, another action is the
priority.
b. Provide tactile stimulation for the newborn.: Tactile stimulation might be required to elicit crying efforts by the
newborn; however, another action is the priority. Tactile stimulation prior to suctioning of the mouth and pharynx can
cause meconium to enter the airways of the newborn.
c. Begin suctioning of mouth and nose.: The greatest risk to the newborn is injury from meconium
aspiration syndrome and respiratory distress; therefore, the priority action the nurse should take
is to suction the mouth and nose. The nurse should assess the newborn's condition at birth and
suction the newborn's mouth and nose with a bulb syringe based on the assessment findings. If
the newborn's respiratory status is depressed, endotracheal suctioning must be done as well to
remove any meconium that has entered the newborn's airways.
d. Initiate skin-to-skin contact.: Thermoregulation is important for all newborns, especially newborns whose respiratory
status might be compromised; however, another action is the priority.
8. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum.
Which of the following are findings of this condition? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hypertension is incorrect. Hypotension is a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
a. Tachycardia is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester and
results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional deficiencies.
Tachycardia is a finding of severe dehydration.
b. Dry mucous membranes is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first
trimester and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional
deficiencies. Dry mucous membranes are a finding of severe dehydration.
c. Poor skin turgor is correct. Hyperemesis gravidarum typically occurs during the first trimester
and results in electrolyte imbalance, excessive weight loss, ketonuria, and nutritional
deficiencies. Poor skin turgor is a finding of severe dehydration.
d. Polyuria is incorrect. Polyuria is not a finding associated with hyperemesis gravidarum.
9. A nurse is caring for a newborn who was delivered by cesarean birth 1 min ago and displays
some flexion of the extremities, is not crying, has irregular respiratory effort, and has a heart
rate of 92/min. The nurse notes grimacing but no crying when rubbing the soles of the
newborn's feet. The newborn's skin color is pink with blue extremities. What is the correct
Apgar score?
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