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BSN NSG 3032 Pharmacology Saunders NCLEX Exam 2 Questions and Rationales- South University Tampa

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BSN NSG 3032 Pharmacology Saunders NCLEX Exam 2 Questions and Rationales- South University Tampa/BSN NSG 3032 Pharmacology Saunders NCLEX Exam 2 Questions and Rationales- South University Tampa/BSN NSG 3032 Pharmacology Saunders NCLEX Exam 2 Questions and Rationales- South University Tampa/BSN NSG ...

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  • 17 février 2022
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Pharmacology Saunders NCLEX question
Antivirus Medication
1. The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine. The nurse interprets
that the client may have the medication discontinued by the primary health care provider
if which elevated result is noted?

1. Serum protein level

2. Blood glucose level

3. Serum amylase level

4. Serum creatinine level

2. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine.
The nurse should monitor which most closely while the client is taking this medication?

1. Gait

2. Appetite

3. Level of consciousness

4. Gastrointestinal function


3. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has been started on therapy
with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the results of which laboratory blood study
for adverse effects of therapy?

1. Creatinine level

2. Potassium concentration

3. Complete blood cell (CBC) count

4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

,A client is receiving zalcitabine. The nurse should monitor the results of which study to
determine the effectiveness of the medication?
1. Western bolt
2. CD4+ cell count
3. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
4. Complete blood call (CBC) count with differential
Rationale: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to
infection and malignancy. Zalcitabine slows the progression of acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS) by improving the CD4+ cell count. The Western blot and the ELISA are
performed to diagnose the infection initially. A CBC count with differential may be done as part
of ongoing monitoring of the status of the client with AIDS and to detect adverse effects of other
medications.
The clinic nurse is discussing medication compliance with a client diagnosed with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDs). Which information should the nurse discuss with the
client? (Select all that apply)
1. The availability of insurance to pay for the medications.
2. Whether the client wants to try to manage the disease without medications.
3. Including OTC herbs in the medication regimen.
4. The importance of taking multiple vitamins at least twice a day.
5. The ability to change the medication regimen if side effects are not tolerable.
Rationale: 1. If the client does not have insurance to help pay for the medications, the client may
have trouble complying with the regimen. The current regimens include four or more daily
medication costing more then $6,000 per drug per year. 5. May antiretroviral therapies have sied
effects that can be effectively treated; however, if the client cannot tolerate the side effects, the
medication regimen can be altered.
A client who has been receiving pentamidine intravenously now has a fever with a
temperature of 102 F (38.9 C). Keeping in mind that the client has a diagnosis of acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, the nurse
should interpret that this fever is most associated with which condition?
1. Inadequate thermoregulation
2. Insufficient medication dosing
3. Toxic nervous system effects from the medication
4. Infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication
Rationale: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to

, infection and malignancy. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is a fungal infection and is a
common opportunistic infection. Adverse effects of pentamidine include leukopenia,
thrombocytopenia, and anemia. The client should be routinely assessed for signs and symptoms
of infection. The remaining options are inaccurate interpretations.




The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and Pneumocystis jiroveci infection
has been receiving pentamidine. The client develops a temperature of 101º F (38.3º C). The
nurse continues to assess the client, knowing that this sign most likely indicates which
condition?
1. That the dose of the medication is too low
2. That the client is experiencing toxic effects of the medication
3. That the client has developed inadequacy of thermoregulation
4. That the client has developed another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the
medication
Rationale: Frequent adverse effects of this medication include leukopenia,
thrombocytopenia, and anemia. The client should be monitored routinely for signs and
symptoms of infection. Options 1, 2, and 3 are inaccurate interpretations.


The nurse is assigned to care for a client with cytomegalovirus retinitis and acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is receiving foscarnet. The nurse should
monitor the results of which laboratory study while the client is taking this medication?
1. CD4 cell count
2. Lymphocyte count
3. Serum albumin level
4. Serum creatine level
Rationale: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is a viral disease caused by the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys T cells, thereby increasing susceptibility to
infection and malignancy. Cytomegalovirus retinitis is an opportunistic viral infection of the
eye. Foscarnet is an antiviral medication that is toxic to the kidneys. The serum creatinine
level is monitored before therapy, 2 or 3 times per week during induction therapy, and at least
weekly during maintenance therapy. Foscarnet also may cause decreased levels of calcium,
magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Thus, these levels also are measured with the same
frequency.

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