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OB 204 OB exam 1 review -sauders GRADED A
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OB 204 OB exam 1 review -sauders GRADED A OB 204 OB exam 1 review -sauders GRADED A OB 204 OB exam 1 review -sauders GRADED A
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OB exam 1 review -saudersOB 204 OB exam 1 review -sauders
The nurse is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation. Which
statements should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
1. "The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the fetal lungs."
2. "One vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus."
3. "The normal fetal heart tone range is 140 to 160 beats per minute in early
pregnancy."
4. "Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products away from
the fetus to the placenta."
5. "Two veins carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste
products away from the fetus to the placenta."
Rationale:
The ductus arteriosus is a unique fetal circulation structure that allows the
nonfunctioning lungs to receive only a minimal amount of oxygenated blood for tissue
maintenance. Oxygenated blood is transported to the fetus by one umbilical vein. The
normal fetal heart tone range is considered to be 110 to 160 beats per minute. Arteries
carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus, and the umbilical vein
carries oxygenated blood and provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. Blood pumped
by the embryo's heart leaves the embryo through two umbilical arteries.
The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the
ductus venosus. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the
ductus venosus?
1. "It connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta."
2. "It is an opening between the right and left atria."
3. "It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava."
4. "It connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava."
Rationale:
The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen
ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus
joins the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse that she wants to know the sex of her baby as
soon as it can be determined. The nurse informs the client that she should be able to
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find out the sex at 12 weeks' gestation because of which factor?
1. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia
2. The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin
3. The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac
4. The internal differences in males and females become apparent
Rationale:
By the end of the twelfth week, the external genitalia of the fetus have developed to
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such a degree that the sex of the fetus can be determined visually. Differentiation of the
external genitalia occurs at the end of the ninth week. Testes descend into the scrotal
sac at the end of the thirty-eighth week. Internal differences in the male and female
occur at the end of the seventh week.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks' gestation and
notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) is 174 beats/minute. On the basis of this finding,
what is the priority nursing action?
1. Document the finding.
2. Check the mother's heart rate.
3. Notify the health care provider (HCP).
4. Tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal.
Rationale:
The FHR depends on gestational age and ranges from 160 to 170 beats/minute in the
first trimester, but slows with fetal growth to 110 to 160 beats/minute near or at term. At
or near term, if the FHR is less than 110 beats/minute or more than 160 beats/minute
with the uterus at rest, the fetus may be in distress. Because the FHR is increased from
the reference range, the nurse should notify the HCP. Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate
actions based on the information in the question. Although the nurse documents the
findings, based on the information in the question, the HCP needs to be notified.
The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a
client in the class asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days,
what is the nurse's best response?
1. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's chances of survival."
2. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to estrogen and
progesterone."
3. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's normal implantation in the top portion
of the uterus."
4. "It promotes the fertilized ovum's exposure to luteinizing hormone and
follicle-stimulating hormone."
Rationale:
The tubal isthmus remains contracted until 3 days after conception to allow the
fertilized ovum to develop within the tube. This initial growth of the fertilized ovum
promotes its normal implantation in the fundal portion of the uterine corpus. Estrogen is
a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles, corpus luteum, adrenal cortex, and
placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum of
the ovary, adrenal glands, and placenta during pregnancy. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-
stimulating hormone are excreted by the anterior pituitary gland. The survival of the
fertilized ovum does not depend on it staying in the fallopian tube for 3 days.
The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to explain the characteristics of the
amniotic fluid. The student responds correctly by explaining which as characteristics of
amniotic fluid? Select all that apply.
1. Allows for fetal movement
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2. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus
3. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus
4. Can be used to measure fetal kidney function
5. Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus
6. Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the
mother and the fetus
Rationale:
The amniotic fluid surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus. It allows the fetus to
move freely and maintains the body temperature of the fetus. In addition, the amniotic
fluid contains urine from the fetus and can be used to assess fetal kidney function. The
placenta prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus and
provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the
fetus.
A couple comes to the family planning clinic and asks about sterilization procedures.
Which question by the nurse should determine whether this method of family planning
would be most appropriate?
1. "Did you ever had surgery?"
2. "Do you plan to have any other children?"
3. "Do either of you have diabetes mellitus?"
4. "Do either of you have problems with high blood pressure?"
Rationale:
Sterilization is a method of contraception for couples who have completed their families.
It should be considered a permanent end to fertility because reversal surgery is not
always successful. The nurse would ask the couple about their plans for having children
in the future. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this procedure.
The nurse should make which statement to a pregnant client found to have a gynecoid
pelvis?
1. "Your type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch."
2. "Your type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth."
3. "Your type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but it has a short diameter."
4. "You will need a cesarean section because this type of pelvis is not
favorable for a vaginal delivery."
Rationale:
A gynecoid pelvis is a normal female pelvis and is the most favorable for successful
labor and birth. An android pelvis (resembling a male pelvis) would be unfavorable for
labor because of the narrow pelvic planes. An anthropoid pelvis has an outlet that is
adequate, with a normal or moderately narrow pubic arch. A platypelloid pelvis (flat
pelvis) has a wide transverse diameter, but the anteroposterior diameter is short,
making the outlet inadequate.
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