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NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM – ALL POSSIBLE QUESTION & CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST 2021:Chamberlain College of Nursing (100% SATISFACTIONS) $14.49   Add to cart

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NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM – ALL POSSIBLE QUESTION & CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST 2021:Chamberlain College of Nursing (100% SATISFACTIONS)

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NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM – ALL POSSIBLE QUESTION & CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST 2021:Chamberlain College of Nursing (100% SATISFACTIONS) 1. What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 cotest i...

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  • June 19, 2021
  • 18
  • 2021/2022
  • Exam (elaborations)
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Nr 602 wk 8 poss questions


NR 602 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM – ALL POSSIBLE
QUESTION & CORRECT ANSWERS

ACOG guidelines regarding well women exams
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous
cells of undetermined significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16
cotest in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal pap smears?
 Colposcopy
A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following?
 A general health history focusing on reproductive and sexual health
concerns (menses, gynecologic, and pregnancy related) and psychosocial
(family related, peer related, emotional, and physical as well as related
to abuse, drug use, and alcohol use) concerns
Physical exam, screening tests, and immunizations as indicated by the
health history and gynecologic considerations for an external-only
inspection of the genitalia
ACOG Pap smear guidelines
A Bethesda system Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification?
 CIN 1
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection
should have what as follow-up?
 Routine screening
A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal PAP smear and
has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal PAP smear with HPV
testing today, when should she have the next cervical cancer screening?
 5 years
A young sexually active client at the family planning clinic is advised to have a
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What should the
nurse include in the explanation of this procedure?
 The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix
Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive
human papillomavirus (HPV) screen. Which procedure will be required next?
 Repeat Pap and HPV screen
Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to cease
having any future Pap tests performed?
 Over 55 years of age

,2
Nr 602 wk 8 poss questions

Amenorrhea (Primary and Secondary)
You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea and
normal secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of the progesterone challenge is
to ascertain the presence of?
 Endogenous estrogen
A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for 4 months she did
experience menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On
physical examination, it is noticed that she has normal secondary sexual
characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider a progesterone challenge to
determine the presence of adequate
 Endogenous estrogen
A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex
characteristics. A progesterone challenge is ordered. The purpose is to determine
the presence of ____________?
 Endogenous estrogen
A 16year old girl who comes to your office with a history of secondary
amenorrhea. She experienced menarche at age 10, regular cycles for 2 years. She
has not menstruated now for 4 years. In your initial consideration of differential
diagnoses, what is the most frequent etiology of this problem:
 Eating disorder
18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex
characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would
necessitate further eval?
 Galactorrhea
Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
 Failure to menstruation to occur by 13 yr
A nurse practitioner is caring for a woman with primary and secondary
amenorrhea. The pelvic exam was normal. Which of the following may be the
cause if etiology originates in the hypothalamus?
 Sheehan’s syndrome
American Cancer Society recommendations
A nurse practitioner is participating in a women’s health fair. When educating the
women about risk factors for breast cancer, which of the following statements is
incorrect?
 Fibrocystic breast disease
When educating women about breast cancer risk factors, which statement is
incorrect?
 Fibrocystic breast disease
A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing invasive
breast cancer of

, 3
Nr 602 wk 8 poss questions
 8.0
Androgen insensitivity/resistance syndrome
Changes in hormonal regulation during menopause result in the gradual cessation
of menstruation. From which gland is Androstenedione secreted?
 Adrenals
ASCUS/HSIL results from Paper Test Report
A Pap smear result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance—rule
out high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (ASCUS r/o HGSIL) will require
which procedure next?
 Colposcopy
A Pap smear result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
(ASCUS) will require which procedure next?
 Follow up pap smear
Bartholin glands and cysts
A 25-year-old presents with a report of a very tender area just near her
introitus and to the left of her perineum. Very painful sex is how she knew
"something wasn't right." She showered and when washing, she felt a "pea-sized"
painful lump on the left side of her "bottom." She tells you she looked at it with a
mirror and it was very small, but now it is the size of a ping-pong ball and getting
worse.
When you inspect her external genitalia, you are amazed at the size and appearance
of the "lump."
You note what appears to be an abscess on the left medial side of the labia minora,
and there is some edema extending into the perineum. Your diagnosis for this
presentation is:
 Bartholin’s cyst
You explain to this young woman what this "lump" is and let her know you will be
referring her to a gynecologist you consult with regularly. You explain to her the
likely treatment as follows:
 A possible incision might be necessary and a catheter placed for
two to four weeks to allow for drainage and appropriate healing.
A client at the women's health clinic complains of swelling of the labia and
throbbing pain in the labial area after sexual intercourse. For what condition does
the nurse anticipate the client will be treated?
 Bartholinitis
25yo female c/o tender area near her introitus and to the L of her perineum. Very
painful sex was first sign. Initially bump was very small, but now is ping-pong ball
size. On exam, abscess is present on L medial side of labia minora and there's
edema extending into perineum. What is dx?

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