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[Show more]WOMEN'S HEALTH PRIMARY CARE (100 QUESTIONS) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Who's ready for the AMCB? - correct answer You are! 
 
If you find any errors or discrepancies, please let me know!!! :) 
 - correct answer Whahoo! Good luck! 
 
What is the first step in any encounter with someone coming to a mi...
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Add to cartWOMEN'S HEALTH PRIMARY CARE (100 QUESTIONS) QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Who's ready for the AMCB? - correct answer You are! 
 
If you find any errors or discrepancies, please let me know!!! :) 
 - correct answer Whahoo! Good luck! 
 
What is the first step in any encounter with someone coming to a mi...
THINGS TO MEMORIZE FOR AMCB! QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Add to cartTHINGS TO MEMORIZE FOR AMCB! QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
PROFESSIONAL ISSUES QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
American Midwifery Certification Board (AMCB) - correct answer Who certifies CNMs and CMs 
 
What makes you eligible to take AMCB certification exam - correct answer graduation from a program accredited by the Accreditation Commission on Midwifery Educati...
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Add to cartPROFESSIONAL ISSUES QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
American Midwifery Certification Board (AMCB) - correct answer Who certifies CNMs and CMs 
 
What makes you eligible to take AMCB certification exam - correct answer graduation from a program accredited by the Accreditation Commission on Midwifery Educati...
POLY & OLIGO & CHOLESTASIS - CMRE STUDY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
What is Polyhydramnios? - correct answer Excessive volume of amniotic fluid 
Incidence is 1-2% 
 
What causes polyhydramnios? - correct answer Caused by an imbalance in production and resorption 
Increased fetal urination 
Decreased fe...
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Add to cartPOLY & OLIGO & CHOLESTASIS - CMRE STUDY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
What is Polyhydramnios? - correct answer Excessive volume of amniotic fluid 
Incidence is 1-2% 
 
What causes polyhydramnios? - correct answer Caused by an imbalance in production and resorption 
Increased fetal urination 
Decreased fe...
NURSING - CHAPTER 11 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Accreditation Commission for Midwifery Education (ACME) - correct answer a programmatic accrediting agency for certificate, post-baccalaureate, graduate degree and pre-certification programs in nurse-midwifery/midwifery 
 
ADN-to-BSN - correct answer edu...
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Add to cartNURSING - CHAPTER 11 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Accreditation Commission for Midwifery Education (ACME) - correct answer a programmatic accrediting agency for certificate, post-baccalaureate, graduate degree and pre-certification programs in nurse-midwifery/midwifery 
 
ADN-to-BSN - correct answer edu...
NURS 6805 PELVIC LAB FINAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Primary professional organization - correct answer American College of Nurse-Midwives 
 
International Confederation of Midwives - correct answer Global standards 
Does not set our practice standards 
 
Core Competencies for Basic Midwifery Educati...
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Add to cartNURS 6805 PELVIC LAB FINAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Primary professional organization - correct answer American College of Nurse-Midwives 
 
International Confederation of Midwives - correct answer Global standards 
Does not set our practice standards 
 
Core Competencies for Basic Midwifery Educati...
MIDWIFERY COMPS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
A common side effect of is: - correct answer Hot flashes 
then mood swings 
 
 - correct answer 
 
 - correct answer 
 
Leiomyomata can be found in different areas within and around the uterine cavity and surrounding ligaments. Submucosal myomas protrude i...
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Add to cartMIDWIFERY COMPS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
A common side effect of is: - correct answer Hot flashes 
then mood swings 
 
 - correct answer 
 
 - correct answer 
 
Leiomyomata can be found in different areas within and around the uterine cavity and surrounding ligaments. Submucosal myomas protrude i...
MIDWIFERY BOARDS- INTRAPARTUM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
adolescent- factors in pregnancy/ IP - correct answer Prone to late entry to care and poor compliance with AP schedule 
Increased risk for LBW and PTL; HTN disorders in pregnancy; PTL and PTB, IUGR, infant mortality 
 
Advanced maternal age (ol...
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Add to cartMIDWIFERY BOARDS- INTRAPARTUM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
adolescent- factors in pregnancy/ IP - correct answer Prone to late entry to care and poor compliance with AP schedule 
Increased risk for LBW and PTL; HTN disorders in pregnancy; PTL and PTB, IUGR, infant mortality 
 
Advanced maternal age (ol...
MIDWIFERY BOARD EXAM- PROFESSIONAL ISSUES QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
CNM definition - correct answer Licensed, independent healthcare provider who provides a full range of primary healthcare services for women, from adolescence to beyond menopause, to include gynecologic and family planning services; ...
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Add to cartMIDWIFERY BOARD EXAM- PROFESSIONAL ISSUES QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
CNM definition - correct answer Licensed, independent healthcare provider who provides a full range of primary healthcare services for women, from adolescence to beyond menopause, to include gynecologic and family planning services; ...
MAC AMCA EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Ethics is... - correct answer Conforming to moral standards of the right behavior or rule of conduct. 
 
The main purpose of PPE is to: - correct answer Provide employees a barrier against infection. 
 
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration): - co...
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Add to cartMAC AMCA EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Ethics is... - correct answer Conforming to moral standards of the right behavior or rule of conduct. 
 
The main purpose of PPE is to: - correct answer Provide employees a barrier against infection. 
 
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration): - co...
LAB VALUES/HEALTH PROMOTION FOR AMCB/NCC QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
RBC count (adult) - correct answer 4.2- 5.4 million 
 
MCH - correct answer 27-31 
 
MCHC - correct answer 32-36 
 
WBC - correct answer 5000-10,000 
 
neutrophils increase with - correct answer acute bacterial & trauma 
 
basophils a...
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Add to cartLAB VALUES/HEALTH PROMOTION FOR AMCB/NCC QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
RBC count (adult) - correct answer 4.2- 5.4 million 
 
MCH - correct answer 27-31 
 
MCHC - correct answer 32-36 
 
WBC - correct answer 5000-10,000 
 
neutrophils increase with - correct answer acute bacterial & trauma 
 
basophils a...
HYPERBILIRUBINEMIA - CMRE PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
What is Hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer A condition in which there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood and tissues of the body 
 
What is Jaundice? - correct answer The yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes as a result of...
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Add to cartHYPERBILIRUBINEMIA - CMRE PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
What is Hyperbilirubinemia? - correct answer A condition in which there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood and tissues of the body 
 
What is Jaundice? - correct answer The yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes as a result of...
AMCR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Wings, Fuselage, Powerplant, Empennage, Landing Gear - correct answer Major Structural Components 
 
Rectangular, Tapered, Swept, Delta - correct answer Wing Shape 
 
Low Wing, Mid Wing, High Wing - correct answer Wing Positions 
 
Monoplane, Biplane, Triplane - correct...
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Add to cartAMCR QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Wings, Fuselage, Powerplant, Empennage, Landing Gear - correct answer Major Structural Components 
 
Rectangular, Tapered, Swept, Delta - correct answer Wing Shape 
 
Low Wing, Mid Wing, High Wing - correct answer Wing Positions 
 
Monoplane, Biplane, Triplane - correct...
AM/CB TRANCEIVERS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
5W - correct answer CB radio power is limited to transmissions at 
 
Amplitude Modulation - correct answer CB radio modulates the carrier using 
 
High level modulation - correct answer When intelligence is injected into the final RF power amplifier it is c...
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Add to cartAM/CB TRANCEIVERS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
5W - correct answer CB radio power is limited to transmissions at 
 
Amplitude Modulation - correct answer CB radio modulates the carrier using 
 
High level modulation - correct answer When intelligence is injected into the final RF power amplifier it is c...
AMCB STUDY MATERIAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS QUESTION AND ANSWERS 
 
Methergine - correct answer 0.2 mg IM 
May repeat in 5 min 
Then q 2-4 hr 
Onset of action: 2-5 min 
Peaks @ 20-30 min 
*CI in HTN/pre-e* 
 
Hemabate - correct answer 250 mcg IM 
May repeat q 15-90 min, x 8 doses if needed 
Peaks @ 3...
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Add to cartAMCB STUDY MATERIAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS QUESTION AND ANSWERS 
 
Methergine - correct answer 0.2 mg IM 
May repeat in 5 min 
Then q 2-4 hr 
Onset of action: 2-5 min 
Peaks @ 20-30 min 
*CI in HTN/pre-e* 
 
Hemabate - correct answer 250 mcg IM 
May repeat q 15-90 min, x 8 doses if needed 
Peaks @ 3...
AMCB QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
To verify DNA purity we have to: - correct answer Measure absorbance at 260 nm and 280 nm. 
 
The addition of proteinase K in the buffer ATL is to: - correct answer Disrupt the cell envelope to lyse cells. 
 
The genomic DNA that we extract from cells (of any kind) is p...
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Add to cartAMCB QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
To verify DNA purity we have to: - correct answer Measure absorbance at 260 nm and 280 nm. 
 
The addition of proteinase K in the buffer ATL is to: - correct answer Disrupt the cell envelope to lyse cells. 
 
The genomic DNA that we extract from cells (of any kind) is p...
AMCB PRENATAL CARE AND FETAL ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
how soon do most pregnancies occur after intercoures - correct answer within 2 days of ovulation 
 
What is a morula ? and when does it enter the uterine cavity? - correct answer solid ball of cells formed by 16 blastomeres. enters the...
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Add to cartAMCB PRENATAL CARE AND FETAL ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
how soon do most pregnancies occur after intercoures - correct answer within 2 days of ovulation 
 
What is a morula ? and when does it enter the uterine cavity? - correct answer solid ball of cells formed by 16 blastomeres. enters the...
AMCB PRACTICE QUESTION REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Latent Phase of Labor - correct answer Onset of labor until cervical dilation reaches 4-6 m 
 
Long arc rotation - correct answer Most commonly performed by babies beginning labor in LOP presentation 
 
FHR Variability: controlling system - corr...
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Latent Phase of Labor - correct answer Onset of labor until cervical dilation reaches 4-6 m 
 
Long arc rotation - correct answer Most commonly performed by babies beginning labor in LOP presentation 
 
FHR Variability: controlling system - corr...
AMCB: NEWBORN TRANSITION WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 100% 
 
is APGAR score reflects initial stabilization 
1 min APGAR score 
This APGAR score has a relationship to neonatal morbidity and mortality 
5-min APGAR score 
An APGAR score of less than 7 at 5 minutes indicate? 
Need for pediatric/neonatal in...
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is APGAR score reflects initial stabilization 
1 min APGAR score 
This APGAR score has a relationship to neonatal morbidity and mortality 
5-min APGAR score 
An APGAR score of less than 7 at 5 minutes indicate? 
Need for pediatric/neonatal in...
AMCB MEMORIZATION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Diaphragm of Stethoscope - correct answer Used to listed to high pitch sounds-S1, S2, heart sounds 
Big and flat 
 
Bell of Stethoscope - correct answer Used to listen to low pitch sounds 
Bruits, murmurs 
concave 
 
Underweight BMI - correct answer <18...
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Add to cartAMCB MEMORIZATION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Diaphragm of Stethoscope - correct answer Used to listed to high pitch sounds-S1, S2, heart sounds 
Big and flat 
 
Bell of Stethoscope - correct answer Used to listen to low pitch sounds 
Bruits, murmurs 
concave 
 
Underweight BMI - correct answer <18...
AMCB: HEALTH ASSESSMENT AND DIAGNOSTICS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
waist circumference - correct answer -used for individuals with bmi between 25-39.9 as a measure of risk for disease 
-for females, >35in is considered increased relative risk 
 
ABCDEs of melanoma - correct answer Asymmetric, borde...
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waist circumference - correct answer -used for individuals with bmi between 25-39.9 as a measure of risk for disease 
-for females, >35in is considered increased relative risk 
 
ABCDEs of melanoma - correct answer Asymmetric, borde...
AMCB EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Hyperlipidemia - correct answer LDL >/= 190 mg/dL 
 
Anemia - correct answer Hgb<11 (1st tri), 10.5 (2nd tri), 11 (3rd tri), or <12 (non-pregnant) 
 
Iron deficiency anemia - correct answer Hgb<12 and serum ferritin<100-150mg/dL 
 
Iron RDA - correct...
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Add to cartAMCB EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Hyperlipidemia - correct answer LDL >/= 190 mg/dL 
 
Anemia - correct answer Hgb<11 (1st tri), 10.5 (2nd tri), 11 (3rd tri), or <12 (non-pregnant) 
 
Iron deficiency anemia - correct answer Hgb<12 and serum ferritin<100-150mg/dL 
 
Iron RDA - correct...
AMCB DRUG TREATMENT PROTOCOLS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Chlamydia treatment - correct answer 1g azithromycin PO x1 or 100mg doxycycline PO BID x7d 
 
No doxycycline in pregnancy 
 
Chlamydia treatment in pregnancy - correct answer 1g azithromycin PO x1 or 500mg amoxicillin PO TID x10d 
 
Gonorrhea tr...
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Add to cartAMCB DRUG TREATMENT PROTOCOLS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Chlamydia treatment - correct answer 1g azithromycin PO x1 or 100mg doxycycline PO BID x7d 
 
No doxycycline in pregnancy 
 
Chlamydia treatment in pregnancy - correct answer 1g azithromycin PO x1 or 500mg amoxicillin PO TID x10d 
 
Gonorrhea tr...
AMCB BOARDS- THINGS TO MEMORIZE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Osteopenia T score - correct answer -1.1 to -2.49 
 
Osteoporosis T score - correct answer -2.5 or less 
 
When to start screening with DXA - correct answer 65 
 
When do you use Z scores? - correct answer matched reference population for prem...
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Add to cartAMCB BOARDS- THINGS TO MEMORIZE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Osteopenia T score - correct answer -1.1 to -2.49 
 
Osteoporosis T score - correct answer -2.5 or less 
 
When to start screening with DXA - correct answer 65 
 
When do you use Z scores? - correct answer matched reference population for prem...
AMCB BOARDS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Osteopenia T score - correct answer -1.1 to -2.49 
 
Matched to healthy young adult 
 
Osteoporosis T score - correct answer -2.5 or less 
 
When to start screening with DXA - correct answer -65+ 
-age 50+ or postmenopausal and FRAX 10%+ 
 
When do you use Z scor...
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Add to cartAMCB BOARDS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Osteopenia T score - correct answer -1.1 to -2.49 
 
Matched to healthy young adult 
 
Osteoporosis T score - correct answer -2.5 or less 
 
When to start screening with DXA - correct answer -65+ 
-age 50+ or postmenopausal and FRAX 10%+ 
 
When do you use Z scor...
AMCB BOARD REVIEW (NM717) PRIMARY CARE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Metronidazole big take aways - correct answer Used to treat BV, Trich, PID, etc 
Taken PO or PV 
SE: GI (take with food), HA, mild leukopenia or neutropenia (prolonged high doses, seizures ( prolonged high doses), urine darker, metallic...
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Add to cartAMCB BOARD REVIEW (NM717) PRIMARY CARE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Metronidazole big take aways - correct answer Used to treat BV, Trich, PID, etc 
Taken PO or PV 
SE: GI (take with food), HA, mild leukopenia or neutropenia (prolonged high doses, seizures ( prolonged high doses), urine darker, metallic...
AMCB 6 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) - correct answer Rare autosomal recessive disease 
Extreme sensitivity to UV light 
People with XP have defective nucleotide excision repair pathways 
 
Cockayne Syndrome - correct answer -Another DNA repair deficiency like XP 
-Characterize...
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Add to cartAMCB 6 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
 
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) - correct answer Rare autosomal recessive disease 
Extreme sensitivity to UV light 
People with XP have defective nucleotide excision repair pathways 
 
Cockayne Syndrome - correct answer -Another DNA repair deficiency like XP 
-Characterize...
AMCB – ANTEPARTUM WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 100% 
 
normal is 2-8cm 
Single deepest pocket us 
5-24cm 
Normal AFI 
1. breathing movements(1+ episode) 
2. body movement (3+) 
3.Tone(1+,extension to flexion) 
4. AFV: 2cm pocket at minimum 
5. reactive NST 
all are 2 or 0 points 
8-10= normal unless o...
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Add to cartAMCB – ANTEPARTUM WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 100% 
 
normal is 2-8cm 
Single deepest pocket us 
5-24cm 
Normal AFI 
1. breathing movements(1+ episode) 
2. body movement (3+) 
3.Tone(1+,extension to flexion) 
4. AFV: 2cm pocket at minimum 
5. reactive NST 
all are 2 or 0 points 
8-10= normal unless o...
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