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Naplex/cpje vs mpje Tests Compilation Bundle
Naplex/cpje vs mpje Tests Compilation Bundle
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What legistation was created for the provisions for the fast track review of some NDA submissions to expedite approval of new drugs used to treat life-threatening conditions? - Food and Drug A dministration (FDA) Modernization Act 1997 What legistation encouraged manufacturers to conduct research fo...
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Add to cartWhat legistation was created for the provisions for the fast track review of some NDA submissions to expedite approval of new drugs used to treat life-threatening conditions? - Food and Drug A dministration (FDA) Modernization Act 1997 What legistation encouraged manufacturers to conduct research fo...
A prescription is written for atenolol 50 mg and dated August 15, 2020. The patient brings the prescription in to be filled on March 1, 2021. Can you legally fill the prescription? a) Yes b) No - b (> 6 months) Prescription record must be kept for ______ under federal law, and ______ under Ohio l...
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Add to cartA prescription is written for atenolol 50 mg and dated August 15, 2020. The patient brings the prescription in to be filled on March 1, 2021. Can you legally fill the prescription? a) Yes b) No - b (> 6 months) Prescription record must be kept for ______ under federal law, and ______ under Ohio l...
1) A prescription is written for atenolol 50 mg and dated August 15, 2017. The patient brings the prescription in to be filled on March 1, 2018. Can you legally fill this prescription? 
a) Yes 
b) No Correct Answer: b (March 1, 2018 is past 6 months) 
 
2) Prescription records must be kept for ____...
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Add to cart1) A prescription is written for atenolol 50 mg and dated August 15, 2017. The patient brings the prescription in to be filled on March 1, 2018. Can you legally fill this prescription? 
a) Yes 
b) No Correct Answer: b (March 1, 2018 is past 6 months) 
 
2) Prescription records must be kept for ____...
What does "guidance" mean in law? Correct Answer: best practice; not a law 
 
What does "shall" mean in law? Correct Answer: it's required 
 
What does "should" mean in law? Correct Answer: strongly recommended 
 
What is an abandoned application? Correct Answer: occurs when an applicant ...
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Add to cartWhat does "guidance" mean in law? Correct Answer: best practice; not a law 
 
What does "shall" mean in law? Correct Answer: it's required 
 
What does "should" mean in law? Correct Answer: strongly recommended 
 
What is an abandoned application? Correct Answer: occurs when an applicant ...
Medical marijuana can be used for the following conditions? - (a) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (b) Alzheimer's disease (c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (d) Cancer (e) Chronic trauma tic encephalopathy (f) Crohn's disease (g) Epilepsy or another seizure disorder (h) Fibromyalgia (i) Glaucom...
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Add to cartMedical marijuana can be used for the following conditions? - (a) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (b) Alzheimer's disease (c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (d) Cancer (e) Chronic trauma tic encephalopathy (f) Crohn's disease (g) Epilepsy or another seizure disorder (h) Fibromyalgia (i) Glaucom...
Waiting period for MPJE after failing - --30 days Adjusting drug regimen shall not... - --include substuting or selecting a different drug which differs from that initially prescribed by pt's physic ian unless substitution is authorized in order or protocol. RPH can make changes to pt's drug thera...
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Add to cartWaiting period for MPJE after failing - --30 days Adjusting drug regimen shall not... - --include substuting or selecting a different drug which differs from that initially prescribed by pt's physic ian unless substitution is authorized in order or protocol. RPH can make changes to pt's drug thera...
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Food and Drug Administration Correct Answer: a federal agency in the Department of Health and Human Services established to regulate the release of new foods and health-related products 
 
(P)FDA Correct Answer: Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 
 
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (6/25/3...
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Add to cartFood and Drug Administration Correct Answer: a federal agency in the Department of Health and Human Services established to regulate the release of new foods and health-related products 
 
(P)FDA Correct Answer: Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 
 
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (6/25/3...
The department of education will mail a licensure exam application to every registered licensee at least _____ before the start of the registration period. Correct Answer: 4 months. 
 
What benefits do military spikes have in the application process? Correct Answer: 
 
SATA: The practice of pharm...
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Add to cartThe department of education will mail a licensure exam application to every registered licensee at least _____ before the start of the registration period. Correct Answer: 4 months. 
 
What benefits do military spikes have in the application process? Correct Answer: 
 
SATA: The practice of pharm...
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who are the required members of the Board of Registration of Pharmacy and how many - -13 members -8 pharmacists, 1 pharm tech, 1 physician, 1 nurse, 2 other how often does the Board of Regist ration of Pharmacy have to meet - at least quarterly how old must you be to sit for examination for pharmaci...
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Add to cartwho are the required members of the Board of Registration of Pharmacy and how many - -13 members -8 pharmacists, 1 pharm tech, 1 physician, 1 nurse, 2 other how often does the Board of Regist ration of Pharmacy have to meet - at least quarterly how old must you be to sit for examination for pharmaci...
How long to file prescriptions? Correct Answer: 3 years 
 
How many prescriptions on schedule II pad? Correct Answer: One only 
 
Prescription record requirements, non controlled drug Correct Answer: patients name, animal name and owner, address, date Rx issued, name of med, strength of med, quan...
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Add to cartHow long to file prescriptions? Correct Answer: 3 years 
 
How many prescriptions on schedule II pad? Correct Answer: One only 
 
Prescription record requirements, non controlled drug Correct Answer: patients name, animal name and owner, address, date Rx issued, name of med, strength of med, quan...
What is in a prescription Record? (non-controlled) What are the additional things necessary on controlled scripts? - Patient's Name (If pet, species and owner's name) Patient's Address Date the Prescription is issued Name of the medication Dosage Strength Quantity Refills Directions to use Cautio...
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Add to cartWhat is in a prescription Record? (non-controlled) What are the additional things necessary on controlled scripts? - Patient's Name (If pet, species and owner's name) Patient's Address Date the Prescription is issued Name of the medication Dosage Strength Quantity Refills Directions to use Cautio...
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BOP consists of ______ members - 7 No more than _______ members of the BOP can be from the same political party - 4 One member of the BOP must be..... - IN resident with no affilia tion with pharmacy One member of the BOP must be a practicing ________ pharmacist. Others must be from varied practice ...
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Add to cartBOP consists of ______ members - 7 No more than _______ members of the BOP can be from the same political party - 4 One member of the BOP must be..... - IN resident with no affilia tion with pharmacy One member of the BOP must be a practicing ________ pharmacist. Others must be from varied practice ...
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If an institutional pharmacy is closed and unattended by a pharmacist, how can a nurse obtain a needed medication while the pharmacy is closed? (All that apply) 
A. Remove from emergency kit 
B. Remove from floor stock of floor mechanical devices 
C. Ask authorized supervisory nurse to remove from p...
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Add to cartIf an institutional pharmacy is closed and unattended by a pharmacist, how can a nurse obtain a needed medication while the pharmacy is closed? (All that apply) 
A. Remove from emergency kit 
B. Remove from floor stock of floor mechanical devices 
C. Ask authorized supervisory nurse to remove from p...
True or false: "take as directed" does not fulfill the directions for use requirements for controlled substances. - true. Controlled Rx must clearly specify dosage, frequency, and manner in wh ich the drug is to be taken. How often must practitioners or other people who dispense controlled substan...
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Add to cartTrue or false: "take as directed" does not fulfill the directions for use requirements for controlled substances. - true. Controlled Rx must clearly specify dosage, frequency, and manner in wh ich the drug is to be taken. How often must practitioners or other people who dispense controlled substan...
When are pharmacist license expiration and renewal dates? - Every two years, by last day of birth month What are the required number of CPE required for renewal of licensure? - ≥ 30 hr s every two years What are required of auxiliary CPE per renewal period? - ≥ 2hrs of patient safety applicable ...
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Add to cartWhen are pharmacist license expiration and renewal dates? - Every two years, by last day of birth month What are the required number of CPE required for renewal of licensure? - ≥ 30 hr s every two years What are required of auxiliary CPE per renewal period? - ≥ 2hrs of patient safety applicable ...
Texas pharmacist can administer all vaccines - True What age can pharmacist administer influenza - 7 What is the min age for all other vaccines - 14 How many hours for nuclear tra ining - 700 hours State board is made up of how many members - 11 How many pharmacists are on the state board - 7 How ma...
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Add to cartTexas pharmacist can administer all vaccines - True What age can pharmacist administer influenza - 7 What is the min age for all other vaccines - 14 How many hours for nuclear tra ining - 700 hours State board is made up of how many members - 11 How many pharmacists are on the state board - 7 How ma...
Neither _____ nor _____ are required by an *ANDA*. - -pre-clinical animal studies -clinical studies *bioequivalence only Prescription drug advertising is regulated by the _____, while OTC dru g advertising is regulated by the _____. - -FDA -FTC (Federal Trade Commission) Any false or misleading stat...
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Add to cartNeither _____ nor _____ are required by an *ANDA*. - -pre-clinical animal studies -clinical studies *bioequivalence only Prescription drug advertising is regulated by the _____, while OTC dru g advertising is regulated by the _____. - -FDA -FTC (Federal Trade Commission) Any false or misleading stat...
how many compliance officers/inspectors does VA BOP have? - 9 - 5 pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect pharmacies, 4 non-pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect other facilities license d by the BOP how many pharmacist members are there on VA BOP? public members? - -8 pharmacist -2 public do ...
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Add to carthow many compliance officers/inspectors does VA BOP have? - 9 - 5 pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect pharmacies, 4 non-pharmacist inspectors assigned to inspect other facilities license d by the BOP how many pharmacist members are there on VA BOP? public members? - -8 pharmacist -2 public do ...
What did the Federal Controlled Substances Act do? Why was it implemented? - Legislators very concerned in the 1960s about legal and illegal drugs being abused They were given the opportunity to design an act/law Created the DEA to promulgate and enforce the law Created a closed system between: manu...
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Add to cartWhat did the Federal Controlled Substances Act do? Why was it implemented? - Legislators very concerned in the 1960s about legal and illegal drugs being abused They were given the opportunity to design an act/law Created the DEA to promulgate and enforce the law Created a closed system between: manu...
Form to send to DEA for destroying controls - DEA Form 41 Controlled substance theft/loss form? - DEA Form 106. Must also be sent to DPR. Doesn't define what you have to report; err on t he side of caution! How long to send in theft/loss form? - 1 business day Do you need to report pseudophedrine a...
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Add to cartForm to send to DEA for destroying controls - DEA Form 41 Controlled substance theft/loss form? - DEA Form 106. Must also be sent to DPR. Doesn't define what you have to report; err on t he side of caution! How long to send in theft/loss form? - 1 business day Do you need to report pseudophedrine a...
What did the FDCA of 1938 accomplish? - Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act 1) Drugs must be safe prior to marketing 2) Established the FDA - Food, Drug, Cosmetic, Medical device safety Durham-Humph rey Amendment of 1951 - • Created a distinction between "OTC" and "Legend Drugs/Prescription". • Aut...
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Add to cartWhat did the FDCA of 1938 accomplish? - Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act 1) Drugs must be safe prior to marketing 2) Established the FDA - Food, Drug, Cosmetic, Medical device safety Durham-Humph rey Amendment of 1951 - • Created a distinction between "OTC" and "Legend Drugs/Prescription". • Aut...
which agencies are in charge of enforcing the Illinois controlled substance act Correct Answer: department of human services 
offices of alcoholism and substance abuse 
Department of financial and professional regulation 
 
are controlled substances regulated by federal or state laws Correct Answer...
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Add to cartwhich agencies are in charge of enforcing the Illinois controlled substance act Correct Answer: department of human services 
offices of alcoholism and substance abuse 
Department of financial and professional regulation 
 
are controlled substances regulated by federal or state laws Correct Answer...
what law prohibits the distribution of food and drugs that are misbranded or adulterated? Correct Answer: Pure Food and Drug Act 
 
What is the system that can be used as an electronic substitute for DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule II controlled substances? Correct Answer: Controlled Substance...
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Add to cartwhat law prohibits the distribution of food and drugs that are misbranded or adulterated? Correct Answer: Pure Food and Drug Act 
 
What is the system that can be used as an electronic substitute for DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule II controlled substances? Correct Answer: Controlled Substance...
Form ____ is to register as a new pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224 
 
Form ___ is required to renew DEA registry for a given pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224a 
 
Form ___ is to renew DEA registry for a chain of pharmacies. Correct Answer: 224b 
 
Form ____ is for the transfer of C-II substances Correct...
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Add to cartForm ____ is to register as a new pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224 
 
Form ___ is required to renew DEA registry for a given pharmacy. Correct Answer: 224a 
 
Form ___ is to renew DEA registry for a chain of pharmacies. Correct Answer: 224b 
 
Form ____ is for the transfer of C-II substances Correct...
Another name for Enbrel 
 
a) Efavirenz 
b) Etanercept 
c) Eptifbatide 
d) Enfurvitide 
e) Entidronate correct answer: Etanercept 
 
A patient asks the pharmacist about a severe hangover from drinking vodka last night. He awakened with heartburn, nausea, tremor, dizziness, fatigue, body aches, head...
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Add to cartAnother name for Enbrel 
 
a) Efavirenz 
b) Etanercept 
c) Eptifbatide 
d) Enfurvitide 
e) Entidronate correct answer: Etanercept 
 
A patient asks the pharmacist about a severe hangover from drinking vodka last night. He awakened with heartburn, nausea, tremor, dizziness, fatigue, body aches, head...
How is nitroglycerin stored? correct answer: - Non-PVC containers. 
- glass 
 
How often are clonidine patches replaced? correct answer: Once a week 
 
Dose of clonidine patches? correct answer: 0.1 mg/24h. Notice that the dose is in respect to 24 hours while patches are replaced once a week. Fin...
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Add to cartHow is nitroglycerin stored? correct answer: - Non-PVC containers. 
- glass 
 
How often are clonidine patches replaced? correct answer: Once a week 
 
Dose of clonidine patches? correct answer: 0.1 mg/24h. Notice that the dose is in respect to 24 hours while patches are replaced once a week. Fin...
Beta 1 selective beta blockers correct answer: AMEBBA 
 
Atenolol 
Metoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Esmolol 
Bisoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Betaxolol 
Acebutolol 
 
ISA beta blockers correct answer: CAPP 
Carteolol 
Acebutolol 
Penbutolol 
Pindolol 
 
Non-selective beta blockers with a...
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Add to cartBeta 1 selective beta blockers correct answer: AMEBBA 
 
Atenolol 
Metoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Esmolol 
Bisoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Betaxolol 
Acebutolol 
 
ISA beta blockers correct answer: CAPP 
Carteolol 
Acebutolol 
Penbutolol 
Pindolol 
 
Non-selective beta blockers with a...
How to treat someone with <200 CD4 count and a PCP or MAC infection who has just started HAART? correct answer: 1. Treat infection 
2. Steroids may be used in some situations 
3. Continue HAART (but for other opportunistic infections you would stop HAART until the infection is treated because of...
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Add to cartHow to treat someone with <200 CD4 count and a PCP or MAC infection who has just started HAART? correct answer: 1. Treat infection 
2. Steroids may be used in some situations 
3. Continue HAART (but for other opportunistic infections you would stop HAART until the infection is treated because of...
anti-emetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy correct answer: fosapretant + dexmethasone + 
ondansetron + olanzapine 
 
3 or 4 drug regimen 
 
NK1-RA + 5HT3- RA + dexmethasone + olanzapine 
 
nadir correct answer: lowest point that WBS and platelets reach in chemo 
 
usually occurs 7-14 ...
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Add to cartanti-emetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy correct answer: fosapretant + dexmethasone + 
ondansetron + olanzapine 
 
3 or 4 drug regimen 
 
NK1-RA + 5HT3- RA + dexmethasone + olanzapine 
 
nadir correct answer: lowest point that WBS and platelets reach in chemo 
 
usually occurs 7-14 ...
How long do you have to wait to give an antibody-containing product if the pt recently received a live vaccine correct answer: 2 weeks (incubation period for it to replicate) 
 
How long do you have to wait to give a live vaccine if the pt recently received an antibody containing product correct an...
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Add to cartHow long do you have to wait to give an antibody-containing product if the pt recently received a live vaccine correct answer: 2 weeks (incubation period for it to replicate) 
 
How long do you have to wait to give a live vaccine if the pt recently received an antibody containing product correct an...
If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
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Add to cartIf the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
HTN definition correct answer: SBP >140 
DBP >90 
 
What drugs can cause HTN? correct answer: NSAIDs, steroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sibutramine, estrogens, EPO, venlafaxine, sympathomimetics, cocaine 
 
Pre-HTN is.... correct answer: SBP 120-139 
DBP 80-89 
 
Stage I HTN is... correct...
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Add to cartHTN definition correct answer: SBP >140 
DBP >90 
 
What drugs can cause HTN? correct answer: NSAIDs, steroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sibutramine, estrogens, EPO, venlafaxine, sympathomimetics, cocaine 
 
Pre-HTN is.... correct answer: SBP 120-139 
DBP 80-89 
 
Stage I HTN is... correct...
this act established a record keeping requirement for the receipt and dispensing of opium or coca leaf products.....the possession of narcotics without a prescription became illegal correct answer: 1914: harrison narcotic act 
 
the sulfanilamide disaster lead to this act's passage correct answer:...
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Add to cartthis act established a record keeping requirement for the receipt and dispensing of opium or coca leaf products.....the possession of narcotics without a prescription became illegal correct answer: 1914: harrison narcotic act 
 
the sulfanilamide disaster lead to this act's passage correct answer:...
ss correct answer: one half 
 
ac correct answer: before meals 
 
pc correct answer: after meals 
 
gtt, gtts correct answer: drops 
 
au correct answer: each ear 
 
as correct answer: left ear 
 
ad correct answer: right ear 
 
ATC correct answer: around the clock 
 
biw correct answer: tw...
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Add to cartss correct answer: one half 
 
ac correct answer: before meals 
 
pc correct answer: after meals 
 
gtt, gtts correct answer: drops 
 
au correct answer: each ear 
 
as correct answer: left ear 
 
ad correct answer: right ear 
 
ATC correct answer: around the clock 
 
biw correct answer: tw...
Which antipsychotics are available in ODT formulations? (5) correct answer: - Mirtazapine (Remeron SolTab) 
- Aripiprazole 
- Clozapine 
- Risperidone (Risperdal M-TAB) 
- Olanzapine (Zyprexa) 
 
(MACRO) 
 
How do you counsel a patient on how to use Albuterol MDI or Flovent HFA inhalers? correc...
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Add to cartWhich antipsychotics are available in ODT formulations? (5) correct answer: - Mirtazapine (Remeron SolTab) 
- Aripiprazole 
- Clozapine 
- Risperidone (Risperdal M-TAB) 
- Olanzapine (Zyprexa) 
 
(MACRO) 
 
How do you counsel a patient on how to use Albuterol MDI or Flovent HFA inhalers? correc...
T or F. Beyond use date must be applied to each compounded product using USP 795 guidelines for Nonaqueous Liquids and Solid formulation and for Water-containing Formulations. correct answer: True 
 
Which of the following is considered with Non-Sterile Preparation? A. USP 795 B. USP 797 correct an...
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Add to cartT or F. Beyond use date must be applied to each compounded product using USP 795 guidelines for Nonaqueous Liquids and Solid formulation and for Water-containing Formulations. correct answer: True 
 
Which of the following is considered with Non-Sterile Preparation? A. USP 795 B. USP 797 correct an...
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
- Antiviral: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase thereby preventing replication 
 
Adalimumab correct answer: Humira 
 
- TNF Inhibitor; MAB: An IgG monoclonal antibody against the cytokine (proinflammatory) TNF alpha 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
- Reti...
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Add to cartAcyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
- Antiviral: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase thereby preventing replication 
 
Adalimumab correct answer: Humira 
 
- TNF Inhibitor; MAB: An IgG monoclonal antibody against the cytokine (proinflammatory) TNF alpha 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
- Reti...
Abacavir correct answer: Ziagen 
 
abacavir/lamivudine correct answer: Epzicom 
 
Acetaminophen correct answer: Tylenol 
 
Acetaminophen/Codeine correct answer: Tylenol #3 
 
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
Albuterol correct answer: ProAir HFA, Prove...
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Add to cartAbacavir correct answer: Ziagen 
 
abacavir/lamivudine correct answer: Epzicom 
 
Acetaminophen correct answer: Tylenol 
 
Acetaminophen/Codeine correct answer: Tylenol #3 
 
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
Albuterol correct answer: ProAir HFA, Prove...
If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
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Add to cartIf the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
Muscarinic Agonist correct answer: Increase SLUDD 
Ex. Pilocarpine, bethanechol 
 
Muscarinic Antagonist correct answer: Decrease SLUDD 
Ex. Ateopine, Oxybutynin 
 
Alpha-1 Agonist correct answer: Increase vasoconstriction, BP 
Ex. Phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent) 
 
Alpha-1 Antagonist co...
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Add to cartMuscarinic Agonist correct answer: Increase SLUDD 
Ex. Pilocarpine, bethanechol 
 
Muscarinic Antagonist correct answer: Decrease SLUDD 
Ex. Ateopine, Oxybutynin 
 
Alpha-1 Agonist correct answer: Increase vasoconstriction, BP 
Ex. Phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent) 
 
Alpha-1 Antagonist co...
HTN ranges 
1. normal 
2. elevated 
3. HTN stage 1 
4. HTN stage 2 correct answer: 1. normal <120/80 
2. elevated 120-129/<80 
3. HTN stage 1: 130-139/80-89 
4. HTN stage 2: >140/90 
 
blood pressure monitoring 
1. Dos 
2. Don't correct answer: 1. Do 
- go to the restroom and empty the ...
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Add to cartHTN ranges 
1. normal 
2. elevated 
3. HTN stage 1 
4. HTN stage 2 correct answer: 1. normal <120/80 
2. elevated 120-129/<80 
3. HTN stage 1: 130-139/80-89 
4. HTN stage 2: >140/90 
 
blood pressure monitoring 
1. Dos 
2. Don't correct answer: 1. Do 
- go to the restroom and empty the ...
Dissociation factor (i) for 1 dissociated ion correct answer: 1 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 2 dissociated ions correct answer: 1.8 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 3 dissociated ions correct answer: 2.6 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 4 dissociated ions correct answer: 3.4 
 
Dissociation factor...
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Add to cartDissociation factor (i) for 1 dissociated ion correct answer: 1 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 2 dissociated ions correct answer: 1.8 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 3 dissociated ions correct answer: 2.6 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 4 dissociated ions correct answer: 3.4 
 
Dissociation factor...
Vancomycin MOA correct answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan polyemerization by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor 
 
Vancomycin type of killing correct answer: Time-dependent 
Bactericidal 
 
Vancomycin coverage correct answer: mos...
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Add to cartVancomycin MOA correct answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan polyemerization by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor 
 
Vancomycin type of killing correct answer: Time-dependent 
Bactericidal 
 
Vancomycin coverage correct answer: mos...
Live vaccines 
MMR, varicella, LAIV, rotavirus 
How often may saliva substitutes be used? 
As often as needed, no age restrictions 
Rozeram SE 
Ramelteon: risk of worsening depression 
Which of the following requires antihistamines and dexamethasone premedication to minimize risk of hypersensitivity...
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Add to cartLive vaccines 
MMR, varicella, LAIV, rotavirus 
How often may saliva substitutes be used? 
As often as needed, no age restrictions 
Rozeram SE 
Ramelteon: risk of worsening depression 
Which of the following requires antihistamines and dexamethasone premedication to minimize risk of hypersensitivity...
Drugs to decrease when using amiodarone (ami will ^ conc) correct answer: digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide 
 
1A2 inducers correct answer: PS PORES, E is for estrogen. (Phenytoin, Smoking, Phenobarbital, Oxcarbazepine, Rifampin (rifabutin, rifapentin), Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort) 
 ...
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Add to cartDrugs to decrease when using amiodarone (ami will ^ conc) correct answer: digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide 
 
1A2 inducers correct answer: PS PORES, E is for estrogen. (Phenytoin, Smoking, Phenobarbital, Oxcarbazepine, Rifampin (rifabutin, rifapentin), Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort) 
 ...
1 cup = ____ mL correct answer: 236.56 mL 
 
1 pint = ___ mL correct answer: 473mL 
 
1 quart = ___ mL correct answer: 946 mL 
 
1 gallon = ___ mL correct answer: 1 gallon = 3785 mL 
 
specific gravity = correct answer: g / mL 
 
sg x w/w (%) = w/v (%) 
 
ou 
od 
os 
ad 
au 
as correct answer: ...
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Add to cart1 cup = ____ mL correct answer: 236.56 mL 
 
1 pint = ___ mL correct answer: 473mL 
 
1 quart = ___ mL correct answer: 946 mL 
 
1 gallon = ___ mL correct answer: 1 gallon = 3785 mL 
 
specific gravity = correct answer: g / mL 
 
sg x w/w (%) = w/v (%) 
 
ou 
od 
os 
ad 
au 
as correct answer: ...
What is the definition of hypertension? correct answer: BP > 140/90 
OR 
Patient requires antihypertensive therapy 
 
Chronic uncontrolled HTN can lead to target organ damage. What organs or organ systems are typically affected? correct answer: 1) Cardiac (MI, need for CABG, PCI, left ventricu...
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Add to cartWhat is the definition of hypertension? correct answer: BP > 140/90 
OR 
Patient requires antihypertensive therapy 
 
Chronic uncontrolled HTN can lead to target organ damage. What organs or organ systems are typically affected? correct answer: 1) Cardiac (MI, need for CABG, PCI, left ventricu...
What are the prophylaxis doses of Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: 30mg SQ q12H or 40mg SQ daily 
(CrCl < 30ml/min use 30mg SQ daily) 
(Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H) 
 
What is the treatment dose for Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H 
(Prophylaxis doses 30mg SQ q12H or...
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Add to cartWhat are the prophylaxis doses of Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: 30mg SQ q12H or 40mg SQ daily 
(CrCl < 30ml/min use 30mg SQ daily) 
(Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H) 
 
What is the treatment dose for Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H 
(Prophylaxis doses 30mg SQ q12H or...
How do you convert Aminophylline to Theophylline dosing? correct answer: Aminophylline dose x 0.8= Theophylline dose 
 
How do you convert Theophylline to Aminophylline dosing? correct answer: Theophylline dose / 0.8 = Aminophylline dose 
 
How many grains are in 81 mg aspirin? correct answer: 1 ...
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Add to cartHow do you convert Aminophylline to Theophylline dosing? correct answer: Aminophylline dose x 0.8= Theophylline dose 
 
How do you convert Theophylline to Aminophylline dosing? correct answer: Theophylline dose / 0.8 = Aminophylline dose 
 
How many grains are in 81 mg aspirin? correct answer: 1 ...
Common CYP Inhibitors correct answer: G: Grapefruit 
Pacman: Protease Inhibitors (ritonavir) 
Azole antifungals: Fluconazole, ketoconazole, ect. 
Cyclosporine 
Macrolides: Clarithromycin, erythromycin, not azith 
Amiodarone 
Non-DHP CCBs: Dilt and verap 
 
CYP Inducers correct answer: Phenytoin 
S...
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Add to cartCommon CYP Inhibitors correct answer: G: Grapefruit 
Pacman: Protease Inhibitors (ritonavir) 
Azole antifungals: Fluconazole, ketoconazole, ect. 
Cyclosporine 
Macrolides: Clarithromycin, erythromycin, not azith 
Amiodarone 
Non-DHP CCBs: Dilt and verap 
 
CYP Inducers correct answer: Phenytoin 
S...
CMEA requires purchasers of scheduled listed chemical products to present a photo ID. Which of the following items is not an acceptable form of identification? correct answer: An employer-based security ID 
 
A 76-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, myocardial infarction one ...
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Add to cartCMEA requires purchasers of scheduled listed chemical products to present a photo ID. Which of the following items is not an acceptable form of identification? correct answer: An employer-based security ID 
 
A 76-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, myocardial infarction one ...
Which of the following statements concerning use of Precedex in critical care patients is correct? 
A 
It can only be used if the patient is intubated. 
 
B 
It can only be used if the patient is also receiving a paralytic. 
 
C 
It will decrease blood pressure. 
 
D 
It is indicated for use up to 7...
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Add to cartWhich of the following statements concerning use of Precedex in critical care patients is correct? 
A 
It can only be used if the patient is intubated. 
 
B 
It can only be used if the patient is also receiving a paralytic. 
 
C 
It will decrease blood pressure. 
 
D 
It is indicated for use up to 7...
PIC can supervise __ pharmacies correct answer: 2 pharmacies within 50 driving miles 
 
Change of PIC reported to board within __ days correct answer: 30 days 
 
PIC self-assessment every __ years correct answer: 2 years, or within 30 days if new permit/PIC/location 
 
PIC self-assessment form ke...
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Add to cartPIC can supervise __ pharmacies correct answer: 2 pharmacies within 50 driving miles 
 
Change of PIC reported to board within __ days correct answer: 30 days 
 
PIC self-assessment every __ years correct answer: 2 years, or within 30 days if new permit/PIC/location 
 
PIC self-assessment form ke...
Poison Prevention Packaging Act- place ORAL (only) Rx meds in child-resistant safety containers. What are the exceptions? correct answer: - Nitroglycerin SL tab 
- Erythromycin ethylsuccinate granules for oral suspension 
- colestipol powder (Colestid- BAS) 
- oral contraceptives in manufacturer'...
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Add to cartPoison Prevention Packaging Act- place ORAL (only) Rx meds in child-resistant safety containers. What are the exceptions? correct answer: - Nitroglycerin SL tab 
- Erythromycin ethylsuccinate granules for oral suspension 
- colestipol powder (Colestid- BAS) 
- oral contraceptives in manufacturer'...
An underserved location is one that does not have a pharmacy within ______ (distance). 
10 miles 
Supervising pharmacy and the remote site must be within _____ (distance) of each other 
150 miles 
In telepharmacies, controlled substances must be stored separately. All management of controlled substa...
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Add to cartAn underserved location is one that does not have a pharmacy within ______ (distance). 
10 miles 
Supervising pharmacy and the remote site must be within _____ (distance) of each other 
150 miles 
In telepharmacies, controlled substances must be stored separately. All management of controlled substa...
Acetazolamide 
Diamox 
MOA- Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor 
sun protection and hydration are recommended 
- for Altitude sickness and motion sickness --> 125 mg BID 
- CI: sulfa allergy 
Sevelamer 
- Renvela (carbonate) or Renagel (HCl) 
- CI: Bowel obstruction 
- Indication: hyperphosphatemia in C...
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Add to cartAcetazolamide 
Diamox 
MOA- Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor 
sun protection and hydration are recommended 
- for Altitude sickness and motion sickness --> 125 mg BID 
- CI: sulfa allergy 
Sevelamer 
- Renvela (carbonate) or Renagel (HCl) 
- CI: Bowel obstruction 
- Indication: hyperphosphatemia in C...
Hospital Drug Supply Inspection correct answer: Every 30 days by pharmacist, intern, tech 
- Includes ADDS, fridge, freezer, emergency supply stock 
- Report irregularities w/in 24hrs to PIC and director or CEO 
 
*Keep records for 3 years 
 
Name tags for pharmacy personnel need to include what i...
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Add to cartHospital Drug Supply Inspection correct answer: Every 30 days by pharmacist, intern, tech 
- Includes ADDS, fridge, freezer, emergency supply stock 
- Report irregularities w/in 24hrs to PIC and director or CEO 
 
*Keep records for 3 years 
 
Name tags for pharmacy personnel need to include what i...
Tylenol (I,D,Overdose) 
Acetaminophen 
I: fever/pain 
D: 325-650mg, max < 4000mg/day from all sources 
*OD = liver damage, use NAC for antidote 
Ofirmev (IV) (I,D,Overdose) 
Acetaminophen 
I: fever/pain 
D: < 4000mg/day from all sources 
*Can treat more severe pain 
*OD = liver damage, use NAC...
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Add to cartTylenol (I,D,Overdose) 
Acetaminophen 
I: fever/pain 
D: 325-650mg, max < 4000mg/day from all sources 
*OD = liver damage, use NAC for antidote 
Ofirmev (IV) (I,D,Overdose) 
Acetaminophen 
I: fever/pain 
D: < 4000mg/day from all sources 
*Can treat more severe pain 
*OD = liver damage, use NAC...
Name tags correct answer: 1. 18 point font 
2. worn at all times *at work* 
3. State: Name and License Status 
 
PIC correct answer: 1. strict liability for violation of laws 
2. may supervise up to *2* pharmacies 
3. the 2 pharmacies MUST be w/in *50 driving miles* 
4. any change of PIC must let ...
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Add to cartName tags correct answer: 1. 18 point font 
2. worn at all times *at work* 
3. State: Name and License Status 
 
PIC correct answer: 1. strict liability for violation of laws 
2. may supervise up to *2* pharmacies 
3. the 2 pharmacies MUST be w/in *50 driving miles* 
4. any change of PIC must let ...
Voltaren correct answer: diclofenac sodium 
 
(oral, gel) 
 
Toradol, Sprix NS correct answer: Ketorolac Tromethamine - NSAID 
 
Very high risk of GI bleed, 5 days max therapy. CV and renal risks. 
 
Indocin correct answer: indomethacin 
 
- NSAID analgesic /arthritis/ pain 
 
Clinoril correct ...
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Add to cartVoltaren correct answer: diclofenac sodium 
 
(oral, gel) 
 
Toradol, Sprix NS correct answer: Ketorolac Tromethamine - NSAID 
 
Very high risk of GI bleed, 5 days max therapy. CV and renal risks. 
 
Indocin correct answer: indomethacin 
 
- NSAID analgesic /arthritis/ pain 
 
Clinoril correct ...
Rheumatoid arthritis: IV correct answer: Return the Bat InTo the Goal 
Rituximab 
Abatacept 
Infliximab 
Tocilizumab 
Golimumab 
 
Rheumatoid arthritis: Biological DMARD storage correct answer: Refrigerate 
 
Rheumatoid arthritis: Dosing 
- Every other week (zumba/mumba) correct answer: - Ada...
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Add to cartRheumatoid arthritis: IV correct answer: Return the Bat InTo the Goal 
Rituximab 
Abatacept 
Infliximab 
Tocilizumab 
Golimumab 
 
Rheumatoid arthritis: Biological DMARD storage correct answer: Refrigerate 
 
Rheumatoid arthritis: Dosing 
- Every other week (zumba/mumba) correct answer: - Ada...
Tylenol #2, 3, 4 correct answer: APAP/codeine (300-15, 30, 60 mg) CIII 
 
Calquence correct answer: acalbrutinib for Mantle cell lymphoma / CLL 
 
Zovirax correct answer: Acyclovir 
 
ProAir HFA, ProAir Respiclick, Proventil HFA, Ventolin HFA correct answer: Albuterol 
 
Combivent Respimat corre...
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Add to cartTylenol #2, 3, 4 correct answer: APAP/codeine (300-15, 30, 60 mg) CIII 
 
Calquence correct answer: acalbrutinib for Mantle cell lymphoma / CLL 
 
Zovirax correct answer: Acyclovir 
 
ProAir HFA, ProAir Respiclick, Proventil HFA, Ventolin HFA correct answer: Albuterol 
 
Combivent Respimat corre...
BP correct answer: everybody <140/90 
if healthy >_60 150/90 
heart <130/80 
 
BP correct answer: blacks: thiazides/ccbs 
kidney problems: acei/arb (not if dialysis or no more kidney function) 
 
BP correct answer: titrate up after 1 month or add 2/3rd drug 
should try to reach target wi...
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Add to cartBP correct answer: everybody <140/90 
if healthy >_60 150/90 
heart <130/80 
 
BP correct answer: blacks: thiazides/ccbs 
kidney problems: acei/arb (not if dialysis or no more kidney function) 
 
BP correct answer: titrate up after 1 month or add 2/3rd drug 
should try to reach target wi...
1x sold
What schedule drugs require one-inch red "C" on the lower right corner of a prescription when the hardcopy for the controlled substance is integrated into the nonscheduled drug prescription files? correct answer: Schedule III, IV, V 
 
What is required when dispensing a drug with an estrogenic co...
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Add to cartWhat schedule drugs require one-inch red "C" on the lower right corner of a prescription when the hardcopy for the controlled substance is integrated into the nonscheduled drug prescription files? correct answer: Schedule III, IV, V 
 
What is required when dispensing a drug with an estrogenic co...
acetaminophen correct answer: APAP/Tylenol/Ofirmev 
 
PO, IV(undiluted), PR 
Fever and pain 
MOA: Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and hypothalamic heat-regulating center 
SE: Not common; IV-GI, increase LFTs 
Stor/Stab: IV-room temp, use w/n 6hrs 
 
N-acetylcysteine correct answer: NAC/Acetadote/...
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Add to cartacetaminophen correct answer: APAP/Tylenol/Ofirmev 
 
PO, IV(undiluted), PR 
Fever and pain 
MOA: Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and hypothalamic heat-regulating center 
SE: Not common; IV-GI, increase LFTs 
Stor/Stab: IV-room temp, use w/n 6hrs 
 
N-acetylcysteine correct answer: NAC/Acetadote/...
APAP, Tylenol (PO) 
Ofirmev (IV) correct answer: Acetaminophen - Analgesic/Anti-pyretic (no anti-inflammatory or anti-platelet properties) 
 
NAC correct answer: N-Acetylcysteine - APAP toxicity antidone 
 
Aspirin correct answer: Acetylsalicylic acid - NSAID 
 
Motrin, Advil (PO) 
Caldolor (IV)...
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Add to cartAPAP, Tylenol (PO) 
Ofirmev (IV) correct answer: Acetaminophen - Analgesic/Anti-pyretic (no anti-inflammatory or anti-platelet properties) 
 
NAC correct answer: N-Acetylcysteine - APAP toxicity antidone 
 
Aspirin correct answer: Acetylsalicylic acid - NSAID 
 
Motrin, Advil (PO) 
Caldolor (IV)...
flexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine 
muscle relaxant 
5 - 10mg TID prn 
xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx 
 
lioresal correct answer: baclofen 
muscle relaxant 
5-20mg tid - qid prn 
avoid abrupt withdrawal 
 
robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol 
muscle relaxant 
1.5g - 2g qid prn...
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Add to cartflexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine 
muscle relaxant 
5 - 10mg TID prn 
xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx 
 
lioresal correct answer: baclofen 
muscle relaxant 
5-20mg tid - qid prn 
avoid abrupt withdrawal 
 
robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol 
muscle relaxant 
1.5g - 2g qid prn...
Within how many days must the board be notified of a change of pharmacy ownership correct answer: 30 days 
 
Within how many days must the board be notified of a change of the pharmacist-in-charge correct answer: 30 days 
 
Within how many days must the board be notified in the case of a bankruptc...
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Add to cartWithin how many days must the board be notified of a change of pharmacy ownership correct answer: 30 days 
 
Within how many days must the board be notified of a change of the pharmacist-in-charge correct answer: 30 days 
 
Within how many days must the board be notified in the case of a bankruptc...
flexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine 
muscle relaxant 
5 - 10mg TID prn 
xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx 
 
lioresal correct answer: baclofen 
muscle relaxant 
5-20mg tid - qid prn 
avoid abrupt withdrawal 
 
robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol 
muscle relaxant 
1.5g - 2g qid prn...
Preview 4 out of 182 pages
Add to cartflexeril correct answer: cyclobenzaprine 
muscle relaxant 
5 - 10mg TID prn 
xerostomia, serotonergic, careful heart dx 
 
lioresal correct answer: baclofen 
muscle relaxant 
5-20mg tid - qid prn 
avoid abrupt withdrawal 
 
robaxin correct answer: methocarbamol 
muscle relaxant 
1.5g - 2g qid prn...
Renal Disease correct answer: Common Causes 
-*DM* 
-*HTN* 
 
AKI 
-*sudden* loss of kidney function 
-commonly caused by *dehyration* 
-*BUN:SCr ration > 20:1* 
 
CKD 
-*progressive* loss of kidney function 
-*GFR or CrCl* < 60 
-*albuminurua * > 30 or more albumin spilling into urine 
-...
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Add to cartRenal Disease correct answer: Common Causes 
-*DM* 
-*HTN* 
 
AKI 
-*sudden* loss of kidney function 
-commonly caused by *dehyration* 
-*BUN:SCr ration > 20:1* 
 
CKD 
-*progressive* loss of kidney function 
-*GFR or CrCl* < 60 
-*albuminurua * > 30 or more albumin spilling into urine 
-...
Washington MPJE| 307 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
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Add to cartWashington MPJE| 307 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
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