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[Show more]Another name for Enbrel 
 
a) Efavirenz 
b) Etanercept 
c) Eptifbatide 
d) Enfurvitide 
e) Entidronate correct answer: Etanercept 
 
A patient asks the pharmacist about a severe hangover from drinking vodka last night. He awakened with heartburn, nausea, tremor, dizziness, fatigue, body aches, head...
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Add to cartAnother name for Enbrel 
 
a) Efavirenz 
b) Etanercept 
c) Eptifbatide 
d) Enfurvitide 
e) Entidronate correct answer: Etanercept 
 
A patient asks the pharmacist about a severe hangover from drinking vodka last night. He awakened with heartburn, nausea, tremor, dizziness, fatigue, body aches, head...
How is nitroglycerin stored? correct answer: - Non-PVC containers. 
- glass 
 
How often are clonidine patches replaced? correct answer: Once a week 
 
Dose of clonidine patches? correct answer: 0.1 mg/24h. Notice that the dose is in respect to 24 hours while patches are replaced once a week. Fin...
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Add to cartHow is nitroglycerin stored? correct answer: - Non-PVC containers. 
- glass 
 
How often are clonidine patches replaced? correct answer: Once a week 
 
Dose of clonidine patches? correct answer: 0.1 mg/24h. Notice that the dose is in respect to 24 hours while patches are replaced once a week. Fin...
Beta 1 selective beta blockers correct answer: AMEBBA 
 
Atenolol 
Metoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Esmolol 
Bisoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Betaxolol 
Acebutolol 
 
ISA beta blockers correct answer: CAPP 
Carteolol 
Acebutolol 
Penbutolol 
Pindolol 
 
Non-selective beta blockers with a...
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Add to cartBeta 1 selective beta blockers correct answer: AMEBBA 
 
Atenolol 
Metoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Esmolol 
Bisoprolol - mortality benefit in HF 
Betaxolol 
Acebutolol 
 
ISA beta blockers correct answer: CAPP 
Carteolol 
Acebutolol 
Penbutolol 
Pindolol 
 
Non-selective beta blockers with a...
How to treat someone with <200 CD4 count and a PCP or MAC infection who has just started HAART? correct answer: 1. Treat infection 
2. Steroids may be used in some situations 
3. Continue HAART (but for other opportunistic infections you would stop HAART until the infection is treated because of...
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Add to cartHow to treat someone with <200 CD4 count and a PCP or MAC infection who has just started HAART? correct answer: 1. Treat infection 
2. Steroids may be used in some situations 
3. Continue HAART (but for other opportunistic infections you would stop HAART until the infection is treated because of...
anti-emetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy correct answer: fosapretant + dexmethasone + 
ondansetron + olanzapine 
 
3 or 4 drug regimen 
 
NK1-RA + 5HT3- RA + dexmethasone + olanzapine 
 
nadir correct answer: lowest point that WBS and platelets reach in chemo 
 
usually occurs 7-14 ...
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Add to cartanti-emetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy correct answer: fosapretant + dexmethasone + 
ondansetron + olanzapine 
 
3 or 4 drug regimen 
 
NK1-RA + 5HT3- RA + dexmethasone + olanzapine 
 
nadir correct answer: lowest point that WBS and platelets reach in chemo 
 
usually occurs 7-14 ...
How long do you have to wait to give an antibody-containing product if the pt recently received a live vaccine correct answer: 2 weeks (incubation period for it to replicate) 
 
How long do you have to wait to give a live vaccine if the pt recently received an antibody containing product correct an...
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Add to cartHow long do you have to wait to give an antibody-containing product if the pt recently received a live vaccine correct answer: 2 weeks (incubation period for it to replicate) 
 
How long do you have to wait to give a live vaccine if the pt recently received an antibody containing product correct an...
If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
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Add to cartIf the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
HTN definition correct answer: SBP >140 
DBP >90 
 
What drugs can cause HTN? correct answer: NSAIDs, steroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sibutramine, estrogens, EPO, venlafaxine, sympathomimetics, cocaine 
 
Pre-HTN is.... correct answer: SBP 120-139 
DBP 80-89 
 
Stage I HTN is... correct...
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Add to cartHTN definition correct answer: SBP >140 
DBP >90 
 
What drugs can cause HTN? correct answer: NSAIDs, steroids, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sibutramine, estrogens, EPO, venlafaxine, sympathomimetics, cocaine 
 
Pre-HTN is.... correct answer: SBP 120-139 
DBP 80-89 
 
Stage I HTN is... correct...
this act established a record keeping requirement for the receipt and dispensing of opium or coca leaf products.....the possession of narcotics without a prescription became illegal correct answer: 1914: harrison narcotic act 
 
the sulfanilamide disaster lead to this act's passage correct answer:...
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Add to cartthis act established a record keeping requirement for the receipt and dispensing of opium or coca leaf products.....the possession of narcotics without a prescription became illegal correct answer: 1914: harrison narcotic act 
 
the sulfanilamide disaster lead to this act's passage correct answer:...
ss correct answer: one half 
 
ac correct answer: before meals 
 
pc correct answer: after meals 
 
gtt, gtts correct answer: drops 
 
au correct answer: each ear 
 
as correct answer: left ear 
 
ad correct answer: right ear 
 
ATC correct answer: around the clock 
 
biw correct answer: tw...
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Add to cartss correct answer: one half 
 
ac correct answer: before meals 
 
pc correct answer: after meals 
 
gtt, gtts correct answer: drops 
 
au correct answer: each ear 
 
as correct answer: left ear 
 
ad correct answer: right ear 
 
ATC correct answer: around the clock 
 
biw correct answer: tw...
Which antipsychotics are available in ODT formulations? (5) correct answer: - Mirtazapine (Remeron SolTab) 
- Aripiprazole 
- Clozapine 
- Risperidone (Risperdal M-TAB) 
- Olanzapine (Zyprexa) 
 
(MACRO) 
 
How do you counsel a patient on how to use Albuterol MDI or Flovent HFA inhalers? correc...
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Add to cartWhich antipsychotics are available in ODT formulations? (5) correct answer: - Mirtazapine (Remeron SolTab) 
- Aripiprazole 
- Clozapine 
- Risperidone (Risperdal M-TAB) 
- Olanzapine (Zyprexa) 
 
(MACRO) 
 
How do you counsel a patient on how to use Albuterol MDI or Flovent HFA inhalers? correc...
T or F. Beyond use date must be applied to each compounded product using USP 795 guidelines for Nonaqueous Liquids and Solid formulation and for Water-containing Formulations. correct answer: True 
 
Which of the following is considered with Non-Sterile Preparation? A. USP 795 B. USP 797 correct an...
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Add to cartT or F. Beyond use date must be applied to each compounded product using USP 795 guidelines for Nonaqueous Liquids and Solid formulation and for Water-containing Formulations. correct answer: True 
 
Which of the following is considered with Non-Sterile Preparation? A. USP 795 B. USP 797 correct an...
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
- Antiviral: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase thereby preventing replication 
 
Adalimumab correct answer: Humira 
 
- TNF Inhibitor; MAB: An IgG monoclonal antibody against the cytokine (proinflammatory) TNF alpha 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
- Reti...
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Add to cartAcyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
- Antiviral: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase thereby preventing replication 
 
Adalimumab correct answer: Humira 
 
- TNF Inhibitor; MAB: An IgG monoclonal antibody against the cytokine (proinflammatory) TNF alpha 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
- Reti...
Abacavir correct answer: Ziagen 
 
abacavir/lamivudine correct answer: Epzicom 
 
Acetaminophen correct answer: Tylenol 
 
Acetaminophen/Codeine correct answer: Tylenol #3 
 
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
Albuterol correct answer: ProAir HFA, Prove...
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Add to cartAbacavir correct answer: Ziagen 
 
abacavir/lamivudine correct answer: Epzicom 
 
Acetaminophen correct answer: Tylenol 
 
Acetaminophen/Codeine correct answer: Tylenol #3 
 
Acyclovir correct answer: Zovirax 
 
Adapalene correct answer: Differin 
 
Albuterol correct answer: ProAir HFA, Prove...
If the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
Preview 4 out of 245 pages
Add to cartIf the pka of a weak acid is 2.5, at which pH will this drug become more ionized? 
 
A. pH 5 
B. pH 2.5 
C. pH 1.5 
D. pH 1 correct answer: A. For a weak acid, a higher pH increases ionization 
 
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet? 
 
A. Fick's Law 
B. Henderson-Ha...
Muscarinic Agonist correct answer: Increase SLUDD 
Ex. Pilocarpine, bethanechol 
 
Muscarinic Antagonist correct answer: Decrease SLUDD 
Ex. Ateopine, Oxybutynin 
 
Alpha-1 Agonist correct answer: Increase vasoconstriction, BP 
Ex. Phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent) 
 
Alpha-1 Antagonist co...
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Add to cartMuscarinic Agonist correct answer: Increase SLUDD 
Ex. Pilocarpine, bethanechol 
 
Muscarinic Antagonist correct answer: Decrease SLUDD 
Ex. Ateopine, Oxybutynin 
 
Alpha-1 Agonist correct answer: Increase vasoconstriction, BP 
Ex. Phenylephrine, dopamine (dose-dependent) 
 
Alpha-1 Antagonist co...
HTN ranges 
1. normal 
2. elevated 
3. HTN stage 1 
4. HTN stage 2 correct answer: 1. normal <120/80 
2. elevated 120-129/<80 
3. HTN stage 1: 130-139/80-89 
4. HTN stage 2: >140/90 
 
blood pressure monitoring 
1. Dos 
2. Don't correct answer: 1. Do 
- go to the restroom and empty the ...
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Add to cartHTN ranges 
1. normal 
2. elevated 
3. HTN stage 1 
4. HTN stage 2 correct answer: 1. normal <120/80 
2. elevated 120-129/<80 
3. HTN stage 1: 130-139/80-89 
4. HTN stage 2: >140/90 
 
blood pressure monitoring 
1. Dos 
2. Don't correct answer: 1. Do 
- go to the restroom and empty the ...
Dissociation factor (i) for 1 dissociated ion correct answer: 1 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 2 dissociated ions correct answer: 1.8 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 3 dissociated ions correct answer: 2.6 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 4 dissociated ions correct answer: 3.4 
 
Dissociation factor...
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Add to cartDissociation factor (i) for 1 dissociated ion correct answer: 1 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 2 dissociated ions correct answer: 1.8 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 3 dissociated ions correct answer: 2.6 
 
Dissociation factor (i) for 4 dissociated ions correct answer: 3.4 
 
Dissociation factor...
Vancomycin MOA correct answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan polyemerization by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor 
 
Vancomycin type of killing correct answer: Time-dependent 
Bactericidal 
 
Vancomycin coverage correct answer: mos...
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Add to cartVancomycin MOA correct answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking peptidoglycan polyemerization by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall precursor 
 
Vancomycin type of killing correct answer: Time-dependent 
Bactericidal 
 
Vancomycin coverage correct answer: mos...
Live vaccines 
MMR, varicella, LAIV, rotavirus 
How often may saliva substitutes be used? 
As often as needed, no age restrictions 
Rozeram SE 
Ramelteon: risk of worsening depression 
Which of the following requires antihistamines and dexamethasone premedication to minimize risk of hypersensitivity...
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Add to cartLive vaccines 
MMR, varicella, LAIV, rotavirus 
How often may saliva substitutes be used? 
As often as needed, no age restrictions 
Rozeram SE 
Ramelteon: risk of worsening depression 
Which of the following requires antihistamines and dexamethasone premedication to minimize risk of hypersensitivity...
Drugs to decrease when using amiodarone (ami will ^ conc) correct answer: digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide 
 
1A2 inducers correct answer: PS PORES, E is for estrogen. (Phenytoin, Smoking, Phenobarbital, Oxcarbazepine, Rifampin (rifabutin, rifapentin), Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort) 
 ...
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Add to cartDrugs to decrease when using amiodarone (ami will ^ conc) correct answer: digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide 
 
1A2 inducers correct answer: PS PORES, E is for estrogen. (Phenytoin, Smoking, Phenobarbital, Oxcarbazepine, Rifampin (rifabutin, rifapentin), Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort) 
 ...
1 cup = ____ mL correct answer: 236.56 mL 
 
1 pint = ___ mL correct answer: 473mL 
 
1 quart = ___ mL correct answer: 946 mL 
 
1 gallon = ___ mL correct answer: 1 gallon = 3785 mL 
 
specific gravity = correct answer: g / mL 
 
sg x w/w (%) = w/v (%) 
 
ou 
od 
os 
ad 
au 
as correct answer: ...
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Add to cart1 cup = ____ mL correct answer: 236.56 mL 
 
1 pint = ___ mL correct answer: 473mL 
 
1 quart = ___ mL correct answer: 946 mL 
 
1 gallon = ___ mL correct answer: 1 gallon = 3785 mL 
 
specific gravity = correct answer: g / mL 
 
sg x w/w (%) = w/v (%) 
 
ou 
od 
os 
ad 
au 
as correct answer: ...
What is the definition of hypertension? correct answer: BP > 140/90 
OR 
Patient requires antihypertensive therapy 
 
Chronic uncontrolled HTN can lead to target organ damage. What organs or organ systems are typically affected? correct answer: 1) Cardiac (MI, need for CABG, PCI, left ventricu...
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Add to cartWhat is the definition of hypertension? correct answer: BP > 140/90 
OR 
Patient requires antihypertensive therapy 
 
Chronic uncontrolled HTN can lead to target organ damage. What organs or organ systems are typically affected? correct answer: 1) Cardiac (MI, need for CABG, PCI, left ventricu...
What are the prophylaxis doses of Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: 30mg SQ q12H or 40mg SQ daily 
(CrCl < 30ml/min use 30mg SQ daily) 
(Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H) 
 
What is the treatment dose for Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H 
(Prophylaxis doses 30mg SQ q12H or...
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Add to cartWhat are the prophylaxis doses of Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: 30mg SQ q12H or 40mg SQ daily 
(CrCl < 30ml/min use 30mg SQ daily) 
(Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H) 
 
What is the treatment dose for Lovenox (enoxaparin)? correct answer: Tx dose is 1mg/kg q12H 
(Prophylaxis doses 30mg SQ q12H or...
How do you convert Aminophylline to Theophylline dosing? correct answer: Aminophylline dose x 0.8= Theophylline dose 
 
How do you convert Theophylline to Aminophylline dosing? correct answer: Theophylline dose / 0.8 = Aminophylline dose 
 
How many grains are in 81 mg aspirin? correct answer: 1 ...
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Add to cartHow do you convert Aminophylline to Theophylline dosing? correct answer: Aminophylline dose x 0.8= Theophylline dose 
 
How do you convert Theophylline to Aminophylline dosing? correct answer: Theophylline dose / 0.8 = Aminophylline dose 
 
How many grains are in 81 mg aspirin? correct answer: 1 ...
Common CYP Inhibitors correct answer: G: Grapefruit 
Pacman: Protease Inhibitors (ritonavir) 
Azole antifungals: Fluconazole, ketoconazole, ect. 
Cyclosporine 
Macrolides: Clarithromycin, erythromycin, not azith 
Amiodarone 
Non-DHP CCBs: Dilt and verap 
 
CYP Inducers correct answer: Phenytoin 
S...
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Add to cartCommon CYP Inhibitors correct answer: G: Grapefruit 
Pacman: Protease Inhibitors (ritonavir) 
Azole antifungals: Fluconazole, ketoconazole, ect. 
Cyclosporine 
Macrolides: Clarithromycin, erythromycin, not azith 
Amiodarone 
Non-DHP CCBs: Dilt and verap 
 
CYP Inducers correct answer: Phenytoin 
S...
CMEA requires purchasers of scheduled listed chemical products to present a photo ID. Which of the following items is not an acceptable form of identification? correct answer: An employer-based security ID 
 
A 76-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, myocardial infarction one ...
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Add to cartCMEA requires purchasers of scheduled listed chemical products to present a photo ID. Which of the following items is not an acceptable form of identification? correct answer: An employer-based security ID 
 
A 76-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, myocardial infarction one ...
Which of the following statements concerning use of Precedex in critical care patients is correct? 
A 
It can only be used if the patient is intubated. 
 
B 
It can only be used if the patient is also receiving a paralytic. 
 
C 
It will decrease blood pressure. 
 
D 
It is indicated for use up to 7...
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Add to cartWhich of the following statements concerning use of Precedex in critical care patients is correct? 
A 
It can only be used if the patient is intubated. 
 
B 
It can only be used if the patient is also receiving a paralytic. 
 
C 
It will decrease blood pressure. 
 
D 
It is indicated for use up to 7...
Voltaren correct answer: diclofenac sodium 
 
(oral, gel) 
 
Toradol, Sprix NS correct answer: Ketorolac Tromethamine - NSAID 
 
Very high risk of GI bleed, 5 days max therapy. CV and renal risks. 
 
Indocin correct answer: indomethacin 
 
- NSAID analgesic /arthritis/ pain 
 
Clinoril correct ...
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Add to cartVoltaren correct answer: diclofenac sodium 
 
(oral, gel) 
 
Toradol, Sprix NS correct answer: Ketorolac Tromethamine - NSAID 
 
Very high risk of GI bleed, 5 days max therapy. CV and renal risks. 
 
Indocin correct answer: indomethacin 
 
- NSAID analgesic /arthritis/ pain 
 
Clinoril correct ...
Tylenol #2, 3, 4 correct answer: APAP/codeine (300-15, 30, 60 mg) CIII 
 
Calquence correct answer: acalbrutinib for Mantle cell lymphoma / CLL 
 
Zovirax correct answer: Acyclovir 
 
ProAir HFA, ProAir Respiclick, Proventil HFA, Ventolin HFA correct answer: Albuterol 
 
Combivent Respimat corre...
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Add to cartTylenol #2, 3, 4 correct answer: APAP/codeine (300-15, 30, 60 mg) CIII 
 
Calquence correct answer: acalbrutinib for Mantle cell lymphoma / CLL 
 
Zovirax correct answer: Acyclovir 
 
ProAir HFA, ProAir Respiclick, Proventil HFA, Ventolin HFA correct answer: Albuterol 
 
Combivent Respimat corre...
1x sold
What schedule drugs require one-inch red "C" on the lower right corner of a prescription when the hardcopy for the controlled substance is integrated into the nonscheduled drug prescription files? correct answer: Schedule III, IV, V 
 
What is required when dispensing a drug with an estrogenic co...
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Add to cartWhat schedule drugs require one-inch red "C" on the lower right corner of a prescription when the hardcopy for the controlled substance is integrated into the nonscheduled drug prescription files? correct answer: Schedule III, IV, V 
 
What is required when dispensing a drug with an estrogenic co...
Renal Disease correct answer: Common Causes 
-*DM* 
-*HTN* 
 
AKI 
-*sudden* loss of kidney function 
-commonly caused by *dehyration* 
-*BUN:SCr ration > 20:1* 
 
CKD 
-*progressive* loss of kidney function 
-*GFR or CrCl* < 60 
-*albuminurua * > 30 or more albumin spilling into urine 
-...
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Add to cartRenal Disease correct answer: Common Causes 
-*DM* 
-*HTN* 
 
AKI 
-*sudden* loss of kidney function 
-commonly caused by *dehyration* 
-*BUN:SCr ration > 20:1* 
 
CKD 
-*progressive* loss of kidney function 
-*GFR or CrCl* < 60 
-*albuminurua * > 30 or more albumin spilling into urine 
-...
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