Osgood schlatter - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 Questions With All Correct Answers Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice - CORRECT ANSWER *Usually within first 2-4 days of life *Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset *Due to fast breakdown of RSCs *Liver immature and poor dietary intake. Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaundice - CORRECT ANSWER *Usually within first few weeks to month of life *Secondary to poor intake what to assess for Determining hydration st...

FNP Pedi Musculoskeletal Question and answers 100% correct FNP Pedi Musculoskeletal Female athlete triad - correct answer menstrual dysfunction disordered eating pattern osteopenia or osteoporosis If 1 component of the female triad exists what should you do? - correct answer screen for the other triad symptoms. If eating disorder refer to nutritionist and other health professional. If concerned about bone do a dexascan. Menstrual dysfunction, disordered eating pattern and osteo...

A 12 year-old female presents for a routine sports physical. The physical exam reveals asymmetry of the posterior chest wall on forward bending. This is the most striking and consistent abnormality of which of the following? A Spondylolysis B Spondolisthesis C Scoliosis D Herniated disc - Answer-C Asymmetry of the posterior chest wall on forward bending is the most striking and consistent abnormality in patients with idiopathic scoliosis. A 12-year-old male presents with pain in his lef...

. A baseball coach who is 6 weeks status post rotator cuff repair is rehabilitating in your athletic training room. You assess the range of motion of the coach ' s glenohumeral joint. What is the normal range of motion for shoulder flexion without scapular elevation? A. 0°-120° B. 0°-180° C. 0°-90° D. 0°-135° E. 0°-160° - A: The glenohumeral joint allows for 120° of forward fl exion without scapular elevation. When the scapula is permitted to elevate, the normal range of glen...

Mickey, age 18, is on a chemotherapeutic antibiotic for a musculoskeletal neoplasm. Which drug do you think he is taking? 1.Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). 2.Doxorubicin (Adriamycin). 3.Methotrexate (Rheumatrex). 4.Cisplatin (Platinol). - Doxorubicin (Adriamycin). rationale: The only antineoplastic antibiotic listed is doxorubicin (Adriamycin). All of the other medications are chemotherapeutic agents of other classifications that may be used for musculoskeletal neoplasms. A 13-year-old obes...

A 13-year-old obese (BMI greater than 95%) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent horseplay with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative Drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; an...

ADA screening for DM in Children (Ans- -symptomatic children (polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, blurred vision) regardless of risk factors -asymptomatic children after puberty or 10 years of age or older if overweight or obese (>85th percentile). Plus 1 of the following: *T2DM in 1st or 2nd degree relative *high risk racial/ethnic group *signs of insulin resistance (HTN, dyslipidemia, acanthosis nigricans, PCOS, SGA) *maternal hx of DM or GDM during the child's gestation Statis...

Orthopedic Pearls Card Exam Questions and Answers 100% Pass | Graded A+ Which bone cancer is most likely to start in the spine or pelvis of children? Ewing's Sarcoma (5-25 y/0 ) Lytic lesion with layered periosteal reaction "onion peel" on X-Ray What age group is osteosarcoma most likely to affect? Second decade of life What is the Dx? Patient in his 20s with progressive bone pain worse at night and a sunburst appearance on X-ray. Osteosarcoma (Osteosarcoma = sun) What is the most c...

MS dunphy Question and answers correctly solved 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent "horseplay" with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman,...

MSK Practice Questions - Full Questions, Answers, & Rationales The correct answer is A: Jumpers knee. Rationale- Patellar tendonitis or Jumpers knee is an overuse injury of the quadriceps tendon. Pain at the lower pole of patella and stiffness after activity are main presentations. Meniscal tear (Option B) presents with popping and locking on movement. Osteochondritis dissecans (Option C) may have pain at base of patella due to traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle but it is seen in...