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NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (V2)(LATEST-2020/21)(75 Q/A): Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology(Verified Answers, Download Now to Score A) $12.49   Add to cart
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NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (V2)(LATEST-2020/21)(75 Q/A): Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology(Verified Answers, Download Now to Score A)

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NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (LATEST 2020): Psychopharmacologic Approaches to Treatment of Psychopathology NURS 6630N Final Exam / NURS6630N Final Exam (LATEST 2020) QUESTION 1 What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the...

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  • October 10, 2020
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  • 2020/2021
  • Exam (elaborations)
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  • nurs 6630 final exam nurs6630 final exam latest 2020 psychopharmacologic approaches to treatment of psychopathology nurs 6630n final exam nurs6630n final exam latest 2020 question 1 what

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NURS 6630 Final Exam

QUESTION 1


What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to

manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?


A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs


QUESTION 2


The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic

behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can

help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2

antagonism?


A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C.

Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics


QUESTION 3


The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive

behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of

atypical antipsychotics?


A. The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy. B. The doses are based on

achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy. C. The doses are based on achieving

60% D2 receptor occupancy. D. None of the above.

, QUESTION 4


Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the

patient with psychosis and aggression?


A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic

symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no

documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.


QUESTION 5


The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the

PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient?


A. Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS B. Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail

C. Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5–7 days D. Writing a prescription for a higher dose

of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy


QUESTION 6


The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and

impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will

the PMHNP select? A. Lithium (Lithane) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Valproate (Depakote) D.

Topiramate (Topamax)

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