Adult Health Final Exam Questions And Already Passed Answers.
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Course
Collaborative Adult Health
Institution
Collaborative Adult Health
The nurse suspects that a client is at risk for tuberculosis. Which risk factor should the nurse assess in this client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sharing clothes with an infected individual
B) Living in a poorly ventilated environment
C) Using injection drugs
D) Being an immigrant to the Unit...
Adult Health Final Exam Questions And
Already Passed Answers.
The nurse suspects that a client is at risk for tuberculosis. Which risk factor should the nurse assess in
this client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sharing clothes with an infected individual
B) Living in a poorly ventilated environment
C) Using injection drugs
D) Being an immigrant to the United States
E) Having a compromised immune system - Answer B, C, D, E
Other risk factors think "TB RISK":
T → tight living quarters
B → below poverty line
R → refugee
I → immunocompromised
S → substance abuse
K → kids < 5y/o
The nurse instructs a client with tuberculosis on the medication rifampin. Which client statement
indicates teaching has been effective? (Select all that apply.)
A) "I should take rifampin on an empty stomach."
B) "I need to monitor my vision daily by reading a newspaper."
C) "I should not take aspirin while I am taking rifampin."
D) "I should not be frightened if my urine changes to an orange-red color; it is a normal side effect."
E) "I need to take pyridoxine (vitamin B6) along with the rifampin." - Answer A, C, D
Answer B is important education for pt's on ethambutol
Answer E is pertinent for izoniazid (INH) to avoid peripheral neuropathy
,During an assessment of a 45-year-old patient with asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The
nurse interprets that these symptoms are related to what pathophysiologic change?
A) laryngospasm
B) pulmonary edema
C) narrowing of the airway
D) over distention of the alveoli - Answer C. Narrowing of the airwayNarrowing of the airway by
persistent but variable inflammation leads to reduced airflow, making it difficult for the patient to
breathe and producing the characteristic wheezing. Laryngospasm, pulmonary edema, and
overdistention of the alveoli do not produce wheezing.
The patient has an order for each of the following inhalers. Which one should the nurse offer to the
patient at the onset of an asthma attack?
A) Albuterol
B) Salterm-11meterol
C) Beclomethasone
D) Ipratropium bromide - Answer A. Albuterol
Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that should be given initially when the patient experiences an
asthma attack. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist, which is not used for acute
asthma attacks. Beclomethasone (Qvar) is a corticosteroid inhaler and not recommended for an acute
asthma attack. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic agent that is less effective than β2-
adrenergic agonists. It may be used in an emergency with a patient unable to tolerate short-acting β2-
adrenergic agonists (SABAs).
When providing discharge teaching to a patient who is newly diagnosed with asthma, which of these
points should the healthcare provider emphasize?
A) " eliminate or reduce exposure to known asthma triggers"
B) " measure and record your peak flow meter readings every month"
C) take a NSAID agent daily as part of your treatment "
D) " when you feel an attack is imminent, use your inhaled corticosteroid" - Answer A) " eliminate or
reduce exposure to known asthma triggers"
The nurse teaches pursed lip breathing to a patient who is newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse reinforces that this technique will assist respiration by which
mechanism?
,A) Loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily
B) Promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs
C) Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation
D) Increasing the respiratory rate and giving the patient control of respiratory patterns - Answer C.
Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation.
The purpose of pursed lip breathing is to slow down the exhalation phase of respiration, which
decreases bronchial collapse and subsequent air trapping in the lungs during exhalation. It does not
affect secretions, inhalation, or increase the rate of breathing.
The client diagnosed with an exacerbation of COPD is in respiratory distress. Which intervention should
the nurse implement first?
A) Assist the client into a sitting position at 90 degrees.
B) Administer oxygen at 6 LPM via nasal cannula.
C) Monitor vital signs with the client sitting upright.
D) Notify the HCP about pt's status. - Answer A. Assist the client into a sitting position at 90 degrees.
The client should be assisted into a sitting position either on the side of the bed or in the bed. This
position decreases the work of breathing. Some clients find it easier to sitting on the side of the bed
leaning over the bed table. The nurse needs to maintain client's safety.
The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with COPD. Which data requires immediate intervention by
the nurse?
A) Large amounts of thick white sputum.
B) Oxygen flowmeter set at 8lpm.
C) Use of accessory muscles during inspiration.
D) Presence of a barrel chest and dyspnea. - Answer B. Oxygen flowmeter set at 8lpm.
The nurse should decrease the oxygen rate to 2-3lpm. Hypoxemia is the stimulus for breathing in the
client with COPD. If the hypoxemia improves and the oxygen level increases, the drive to breathe may be
eliminated.
A patient has just been diagnosed with hypertension and has a new prescription for captopril (Capoten).
Which information is important to include when teaching the patient?
A) Check BP daily before taking the medication.
, B) Increase fluid intake if dryness of the mouth is a problem.
C) Include high-potassium foods such as bananas in the diet.
D) Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls. - Answer D) Change position slowly to
help prevent dizziness and falls.
The angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors frequently cause orthostatic hypotension, and
patients should be taught to change position slowly to allow the vascular system time to compensate for
the position change. Increasing fluid intake may counteract the effect of the medication, and the patient
is taught to use gum or hard candy to relieve dry mouth. The BP does not need to be checked at home
by the patient before taking the medication. Because ACE inhibitors cause potassium retention,
increased intake of high-potassium foods is inappropriate.
A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks what she can do to decrease the risk for related
cardiovascular problems. Which of the following risk factors is modifiable by the client?
A) Impaired renal function
B) Dyslipidemia
C) Age
D) Family history - Answer B) Dyslipidemia
Age, family history, and impaired renal function are risk factors for cardiovascular disease related to
hypertension that the client cannot change. Obesity, inactivity, and dyslipidemia are risk factors that the
client can improve through diet, exercise, and other healthy lifestyle changes.
A patient is being treated for hypertensive emergency. When treating this patient, the priority goal is to
lower the mean blood pressure (BP) by which percentage in the first hour?
A) 45%
B) 35%
C) 40%
D) Up to 25% - Answer D) Up to 25%
The therapeutic goals are reduction of the mean BP by up to 25% within the first hour of treatment, a
further reduction to a goal pressure of about 160/100 mm Hg over a period of 2 to 6 hours, and then a
more gradual reduction in pressure to the target goal over a period of days.
Which action will be included in the plan of care when the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving
sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) to treat a hypertensive emergency?
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