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EMT Exam 6 Chap 33-41 (JBL) Questions With Complete Solutions WITH Rationales guaranteed a+ $17.99   Add to cart

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EMT Exam 6 Chap 33-41 (JBL) Questions With Complete Solutions WITH Rationales guaranteed a+

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EMT Exam 6 Chap 33-41 (JBL) Questions With Complete Solutions WITH Rationales guaranteed a+ Question 1: A patient has sustained a head injury and presents with signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP), including a decreased level of consciousness and sluggish pupils. What is the most ...

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  • November 16, 2024
  • 60
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • EMT Course Certification
  • EMT Course Certification
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EMT Exam 6 Chap
33-41 (JBL)
Questions With
Complete
Solutions WITH
Rationales
guaranteed a+

,1|Page



EMT Exam 6 Chap 33-41 (JBL) Questions With
Complete Solutions WITH Rationales guaranteed a+
Question 1:
A patient has sustained a head injury and presents with signs of increasing intracranial pressure
(ICP), including a decreased level of consciousness and sluggish pupils. What is the most
appropriate intervention?

• A) Apply a tight cervical collar and transport the patient with the head elevated.
• B) Administer high-flow oxygen and transport with the head slightly elevated.
• C) Initiate rapid intubation and transport with the head and neck in a neutral
position.
• D) Administer fluid boluses to increase blood pressure and reduce ICP.

Answer: B) Administer high-flow oxygen and transport with the head slightly elevated.

Rationale:
In patients with signs of increased intracranial pressure, it's crucial to manage the airway,
oxygenation, and ventilation. Administering high-flow oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation,
and elevating the head (typically 15-30 degrees) can help reduce ICP by facilitating venous
drainage from the brain. Tight cervical collars are important for spinal injury protection, but
increasing ICP should be avoided. Rapid intubation is generally not indicated unless the airway
is compromised.



Chapter 34: Chest and Abdominal Trauma

Question 2:
A 24-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. Upon assessment, you note absent
breath sounds on the left side of the chest and the patient is tachypneic and hypotensive. What is
the most likely diagnosis, and what is your immediate intervention?

• A) Pneumothorax; apply an occlusive dressing to the wound.
• B) Hemothorax; administer IV fluids and prepare for rapid transport.
• C) Cardiac tamponade; perform a needle decompression.
• D) Tension pneumothorax; perform needle thoracostomy.

Answer: D) Tension pneumothorax; perform needle thoracostomy.

Rationale:
The signs and symptoms described (absent breath sounds, tachypnea, hypotension) are consistent
with a tension pneumothorax. This occurs when air accumulates in the pleural space, leading to a

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shift in the mediastinal structures and compressing the heart and great vessels, causing
hypotension and respiratory distress. A needle thoracostomy is the immediate intervention to
relieve pressure and restore normal lung function before transport.



Chapter 35: Trauma to the Face and Neck

Question 3:
A patient has sustained a penetrating wound to the neck. The wound is located just above the
clavicle and is actively bleeding. What is the first priority for this patient?

• A) Control the bleeding and maintain airway patency.
• B) Apply a dressing to the wound and transport immediately.
• C) Administer high-flow oxygen and begin IV fluids.
• D) Perform a rapid assessment and apply a cervical collar.

Answer: A) Control the bleeding and maintain airway patency.

Rationale:
In trauma to the neck, especially with penetrating injuries, the primary concern is airway
management and controlling bleeding. The neck contains major blood vessels (e.g., carotid and
jugular), and uncontrolled bleeding can be life-threatening. Maintaining an open airway is crucial
as neck injuries can also compromise the airway. After these interventions, a cervical collar
should be applied, and IV fluids can be started.



Chapter 36: Shock and Resuscitation

Question 4:
A 30-year-old female with no significant medical history presents with hypotension, tachycardia,
and cool, clammy skin after significant blood loss from a traumatic injury. She is alert and
oriented but is anxious. What class of shock is she most likely in, and how should you manage
her?

• A) Class I shock; administer normal saline to maintain blood pressure.
• B) Class II shock; administer IV fluids and monitor vital signs.
• C) Class III shock; prepare for rapid transport and administer blood products.
• D) Class IV shock; provide advanced airway management and administer fluids.

Answer: B) Class II shock; administer IV fluids and monitor vital signs.

Rationale:
Class II shock (moderate shock) typically involves a loss of 15-30% of blood volume, and
patients show symptoms such as tachycardia, hypotension, and cool, clammy skin. In this case,

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the patient is still alert, which indicates she is not in severe shock. IV fluid resuscitation (usually
with isotonic fluids like normal saline or lactated Ringer’s) is key to restoring perfusion.
Monitoring is critical to ensure the patient’s condition doesn’t worsen.



Chapter 37: Pediatric Trauma

Question 5:
A 5-year-old child has been hit by a car and is complaining of abdominal pain. Upon exam, you
find bruising over the upper abdomen and tenderness when palpating the area. What is the most
likely injury, and how should it be managed?

• A) Ruptured spleen; transport with a secure airway and start IV fluids.
• B) Pneumothorax; perform needle decompression and secure the airway.
• C) Spinal injury; stabilize the spine and transport immediately.
• D) Pelvic fracture; control bleeding and transport in a supine position.

Answer: A) Ruptured spleen; transport with a secure airway and start IV fluids.

Rationale:
Abdominal trauma in children, particularly to the upper abdomen, can often involve solid organs
like the spleen. Bruising and tenderness suggest injury to the spleen, which can result in internal
bleeding. The primary interventions include securing the airway, providing IV fluid resuscitation
for hypovolemia, and rapid transport to a trauma center for further care. Immediate surgical
intervention may be necessary depending on the severity of the rupture.



Chapter 38: Obstetrics and Gynecology

Question 6:
A 32-year-old pregnant woman, 28 weeks gestation, presents with vaginal bleeding and
abdominal cramping. She is in moderate pain, and vital signs show tachycardia and hypotension.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what should be your next step in management?

• A) Ectopic pregnancy; administer analgesia and prepare for transport.
• B) Abruptio placenta; administer IV fluids and prepare for urgent transport.
• C) Placenta previa; monitor for contractions and prepare for transport.
• D) Spontaneous abortion; administer oxygen and monitor fetal heart rate.

Answer: B) Abruptio placenta; administer IV fluids and prepare for urgent transport.

Rationale:
Abruptio placenta (placental abruption) occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the
uterine wall, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. In this patient, signs of bleeding,

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