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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology-Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024), Chapter 1-52 | All Chapters $39.49   Add to cart

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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology-Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024), Chapter 1-52 | All Chapters

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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology-Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024), Chapter 1-52 | All Chapters

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  • November 13, 2024
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Porth's Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States


Tommie L. Norris
11th Edition

,Table of Contents

Chapter 01 Concepts of Health and Disease 1
Chapter 02 Cell and Tissue Characteristics 13
Chapter 03 Cellular Adaptation, Injury, and Death 24
Chapter 04 Genetic Control of Cell Function and Inheritance 35
Chapter 05 Genetic and Congenital Disorders 46
Chapter 06 Neoplasia 58
Chapter 07 Stress and Adaptation 69
Chapter 08 Disorders of Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid–Base Balance 80
Chapter 09 Inflammation, Tissue Repair, and Wound Healing 91
Chapter 10 Mechanisms of Infectious Disease 102
Chapter 11 Innate and Adaptive Immunity 113
Chapter 12 Disorders of the Immune Response, Including HIV-AIDS 124
Chapter 13 Organization and Control of Neural Function 135
Chapter 14 Somatosensory Function, Pain, Headache, and Temperature Regulation 146
Chapter 15 Disorders of Motor Function 157
Chapter 16 Disorders of Brain Function 168
Chapter 17 Sleep and Sleep–Wake Disorders 180
Chapter 18 Disorders of Thought, Emotion, and Memory 192
Chapter 19 Disorders of Visual Function 204
Chapter 20 Disorders of Hearing and Vestibular Function 216
Chapter 21 Blood Cells and the Hematopoietic System 227
Chapter 22 Disorders of Hemostasis 237
Chapter 23 Disorders of Red Blood Cells 248
Chapter 24 Disorders of White Blood Cells and Lymphoid Tissues 259
Chapter 25 Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular System 271
Chapter 26 Disorders of Blood Flow and Blood Pressure Regulation 282
Chapter 27 Disorders of Cardiac Function, and Heart Failure and Circulatory Shock 293
Chapter 28 Disorders of Cardiac Conduction and Rhythm 305
Chapter 29 Structure and Function of the Respiratory System 317
Chapter 30 Respiratory Tract Infections, Neoplasms, and Childhood Disorders 328
Chapter 31 Disorders of Ventilation and Gas Exchange 339
Chapter 32 Structure and Function of the Kidney 350
Chapter 33 Disorders of Renal Function 361
Chapter 34 Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease 373
Chapter 35 Disorders of the Bladder and Lower Urinary Tract 385
Chapter 36 Structure and Function of the Gastrointestinal System 396
Chapter 37 Disorders of Gastrointestinal Function 408
Chapter 38 Disorders of Hepatobiliary and Exocrine Pancreas Function 420
Chapter 39 Alterations in Nutritional Status 432
Chapter 40 Mechanisms of Endocrine Control 444
Chapter 41 Disorders of Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism 455

,Chapter 42 Structure and Function of the Male Genitourinary System 467
Chapter 43 Disorders of the Male Reproductive System 479
Chapter 44 Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System 491
Chapter 45 Disorders of the Female Reproductive System 502
Chapter 46 Sexually Transmitted Infections 513
Chapter 47 Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System 525
Chapter 48 Disorders of Musculoskeletal Function-Trauma, Infection, Neoplasms 536
Chapter 49 Disorders of Musculoskeletal Function: Developmental and Metabolic
Disorders, Activity Intolerance, and Fatigue 548
Chapter 50 Disorders of Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders 558
Chapter 51 Structure and Function of the Skin 570
Chapter 52 Disorders of Skin Integrity and Function 581

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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

Chapter 1, Concepts of Health and Disease

1. While attending an international nursing conference, many discussions and breakout
sessions focused on the World Health Organization's (WHO) views on health. Of the
following comments made by nurses during a discussion session, which statement(s) would
be considered a good representation of the WHO definition? Select all that apply.
A. Interests in keeping the older adult population engaged in such activities as book
reviews and word games during social time.
B. Increase in the number of chair aerobics classes provided in the skilled care
facilities.
C. Interventions geared toward keeping the older adult population diagnosed with
diabetes mellitus under tight blood glucose control by providing in-home cooking
classes.
D. Providing transportation for clients receiving renal dialysis to and from their
hemodialysis sessions.
E. Providing handwashing education to a group of young children.
ANS: A, B, C, E
Rationale: WHO definition of health is defined as “a state of complete physical, mental, and
social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity.” Engaging in book
reviews facilitates mental and social well-being; chair aerobics helps facilitate physical
well-being; and assisting with tight control of diabetes helps with facilitating physical
well-being even though the person has a chronic disease. Handwashing is vital in the
prevention of disease and spread of germs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 3
NAT: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Select

2. A community health nurse is teaching a group of recent graduates about the large variety of
factors that influence an individual's health or lack thereof. The nurse is referring to the
Healthy People 2030 report from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services as a
teaching example. Of the following aspects discussed, which would be considered a
determinant of health that is outside the focus of this report?
A. The client has a diverse background by being of Asian and Native American
descent and practices various alternative therapies to minimize effects of stress.
B. The client has a family history of cardiovascular disease related to
hypercholesterolemia and remains noncompliant with their treatment regimen.
C. The client has a good career with exceptional preventive healthcare benefits.
D. The client lives in an affluent, clean, suburban community with access to many
healthcare facilities.
ANS: B




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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

Rationale: In Healthy People 2030, the focus is to have healthcare and education access and
quality (such as using alternative therapies to minimize effects of stress), economic stability
(which includes having good healthcare benefits), and social and community context (which
includes living in a clean community with good access to healthcare). Being noncompliant
with treatments to control high cholesterol levels with a family history to cardiovascular
disease does not meet the “neighborhood and built environment.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 3
NAT: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Choice

3. A member of the healthcare team is researching the etiology and pathogenesis of a number
of clients who are under their care in a hospital context. Which client situation best
characterizes pathogenesis rather than etiology?
A. A client who has been exposed to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium
B. A client who is having increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis
C. A client who was admitted with the effects of methyl alcohol poisoning
D. A client with multiple skeletal injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident
ANS: B
Rationale: Pathogenesis refers to the progressive and evolutionary course of disease, such as
the increasing ammonia levels that accompany liver disease. Bacteria, poisons, and
traumatic injuries are examples of etiologic factors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 3-5
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Choice

4. A client newly diagnosed with myocardial infarction requires angioplasty and stent
placement. The client has arrived to their first cardiac rehabilitation appointment. In this
first session, a review of the pathogenesis of coronary artery disease is addressed. Which
statement by the client verifies to the nurse that they have understood the nurse's teachings
about coronary artery disease?
A. “All I have to do is stop smoking and then I will not have any more heart attacks.”
B. “My artery was clogged by fat so I will need to stop eating fatty foods like French
fries every day.”
C. “Sounds like this began because of inflammation inside my artery that made it easy
to form fatty streaks, which led to my clogged artery.”
D. “ If I do not exercise regularly to get my heart rate up, blood pools in the veins
causing a clot, which stops blood flow to the muscle and I can have a heart attack.”
ANS: C
Rationale: The true etiology/cause of coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown; however,
the pathogenesis of the disorder relates to the progression of the inflammatory process from
a fatty streak to the occlusive vessel lesion seen in clients with CAD. Risk factors for CAD
include cigarette smoking, diet high in fat, and lack of exercise.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 4-5



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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Choice

5. A 77-year-old man is a hospital inpatient admitted for exacerbation of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), and a respiratory therapist (RT) is assessing the client for the
first time. Which aspect of the client's current state of health is best characterized as a
symptom rather than a sign?
A. The client’s oxygen saturation is 83% by pulse oximetry.
B. The client notes that they have increased work of breathing when lying supine.
C. The RT hears diminished breath sounds to the client’s lower lung fields bilaterally.
D. The client’s respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute.
ANS: B
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective reports by the client experiencing the health problem,
such as a report of breathing difficulty. Oxygen levels, listening to breath sounds, and
respiratory rate are all objective, observable signs of disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice

6. Which situation(s) are classified as a complication of a disease or outcome from the
treatment regimen? Select all that apply.
A. Massive pulmonary emboli following diagnosis of new-onset atrial fibrillation.
B. Burning, intense incision pain following surgery to remove a portion of colon due
to intestinal aganglionosis.
C. Development of pulmonary fibrosis following treatment with bleomycin, an
antibiotic chemotherapy agent used in treatment of lymphoma.
D. Gradual deterioration in ability to walk unassisted for a client diagnosed with
Parkinson disease.
E. Loss of short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease.
ANS: A, C
Rationale: Development of pulmonary emboli and pulmonary fibrosis following
chemotherapy are both examples of a complication (adverse extensions of a disease or
outcome from treatment). It is normal to expect incisional pain following surgery. As
Parkinson disease progresses, gradual loss of the ability to walk independently is expected.
This is a normal progression for people diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Loss of
short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease is an expected finding.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 10
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Select

7. Laboratory testing is ordered for a male client during a clinic visit for routine follow-up
assessment of hypertension. When interpreting laboratory values, the nurse knows:
A. a normal value represents the test results that fall within the bell curve.



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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

B. if the result is above the 50% distribution, the result is considered elevated.
C. all laboratory values are adjusted for gender and weight.
D. if the result of a very sensitive test is negative, that does not mean the client is free
of disease.
ANS: A
Rationale: What is termed a normal value for a laboratory test is established statistically
from results obtained from a selected sample of people. A normal value represents the test
results that fall within the bell curve or the 95% distribution. Some laboratory values (like
hemoglobin) are adjusted for gender, other comorbidities, or age. If the result of a very
sensitive test is negative, it tells us the person does not have the disease and the disease has
been ruled out or excluded.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5-6
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice

8. The laboratory technologists are discussing a new blood test that helps establish a
differential diagnosis between shortness of breath with a cardiac etiology and shortness of
breath with a respiratory/pulmonary etiology. A positive result is purported to indicate a
cardiac etiology. The marketers of the test report that 99.8% of clients who have confirmed
cardiac etiologies test positive in the test. However, 1.3% of clients who do not have cardiac
etiologies for their shortness of breath also test positive. Which statement best characterizes
this blood test?
A. Low validity; high reliability
B. High sensitivity; low specificity
C. High specificity; low reliability
D. High sensitivity; low reliability
ANS: B
Rationale: A large number of clients would receive the correct positive diagnosis (high
sensitivity), while a significant number would receive a false-positive diagnosis (low
specificity). The information given does not indicate low reliability or low validity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5-6
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice

9. As part of a screening program for prostate cancer, men at a senior citizen's center are
having their blood levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) measured. Which statement best
characterizes high positive predictive value but low negative predictive value for this
screening test?
A. All of the men who had high PSA levels developed prostate cancer; several men
who had low PSA levels also developed prostate cancer.
B. All of the men who had low PSA levels were cancer-free; several men who had
high levels also remained free of prostate cancer.
C. Men who had low PSA levels also displayed false-positive results for prostate
cancer; men with high levels were often falsely diagnosed with prostate cancer.



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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

D. The test displayed low sensitivity but high specificity.
ANS: A
Rationale: The test’s inability to rule out cancer with a low prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
level indicates low negative predictive value. Answer B suggests high negative predictive
value, while answer C indicates low positive predictive value. High positive predictive value
is associated with high sensitivity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 6
NAT: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Analyze NOT: Multiple Choice

10. An international business traveler has returned from a trip to Indonesia. While being there,
the traveler hired a prostitute for companionship and engaged in unprotected sex on more
than one occasion. Unbeknownst to the traveler, this prostitute harbored the hepatitis C
virus. Upon return to the United States, the traveler exhibited no symptoms and returned to
usual activities. During this period of no outward symptoms, the disease would be classified
as being in:
A. the preclinical stage of disease.
B. remission and unlikely to develop hepatitis C.
C. the clinical disease stage of hepatitis C.
D. the chronic phase of hepatitis C.
ANS: A
Rationale: During the preclinical stage, the disease is not clinically evident but is destined to
progress to clinical disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 6-7
NAT: Client Needs: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice

11. As of Nov. 1, there were a total of 10 confirmed cases of hantavirus infection in people who
were recent visitors (mid-June to end of August, same year) to Yosemite National Park.
Three visitors with confirmed cases died. Health officials believe that 9 out of the 10 cases
of hantavirus were exposed while staying in Curry Village in the Signature Tent Cabins.
This is an example of:
A. What the anticipated mortality rate would be if a family of five were planning to
vacation in Yosemite National Park.
B. The prevalence of hantavirus one can anticipate if they are going to vacation in
Yosemite National Park.
C. The low rate of morbidity one can expect while traveling to Yosemite National
Park.
D. The incidence of people who are at risk for developing hantavirus while staying in
Yosemite National Park.
ANS: D
Rationale: The incidence reflects the number of new cases arising in a population at risk
during a specified time.



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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)


PTS: 1 REF: p. 8
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Choice

12. A particular disease has a debilitating effect on the ability of sufferers to perform their
activities of daily living and is a significant cause of decreased quality of life. However, few
people die as a result of the disease's direct effects. There are hundreds of thousands of
people living with the disease but relatively few new cases in recent years. Which statement
best conveys an accurate epidemiologic characterization of the disease?
A. Low mortality; high morbidity; low prevalence; high incidence
B. Low mortality; high morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
C. High mortality; low morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
D. High morbidity; low mortality; high prevalence; low incidence
ANS: D
Rationale: Morbidity is associated with quality of life, whereas mortality is indicative of
causation of death. In this case, morbidity is high and mortality low. Prevalence refers to the
number of cases present in a population, whereas incidence refers to the number of new
cases. In this case, prevalence is high and incidence is low.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 8
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Analyze NOT: Multiple Choice

13. An epidemiologist is conducting a program of research aimed at identifying factors
associated with incidence and prevalence of congenital cardiac defects in infants. The
researcher has recruited a large number of birthing parents whose infants were born with
cardiac defects as well as birthing parents whose infants were born with healthy hearts. The
researcher is comparing the nutritional habits of all the birthing parents while their infants
were in utero. Which type of study is the epidemiologist most likely conducting?
A. Cohort study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Case-control study
D. Risk factor study
ANS: C
Rationale: In this study, the birthing parents with infants with cardiac defects would be the
case group, and the birthing parent of infants with health hearts would serve as a control.
This study does not possess the characteristics of a cohort or cross- sectional study, and risk
factor study is not an existing methodology.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 3-4
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice




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Test Bank - Porth’s Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States, 11th Edition (Lynn, 2024)

14. A nurse practitioner is working in a crowded neighborhood where the population is
primarily immigrants from the same country. The nurse has designed a research study to
follow children from kindergarten to the age of 25. The nurse is going to be looking at their
diet, successful progression in school, health practices, and development of disease, to name
a few items. This type of research is known as:
A. cohort study.
B. cross-sectional study.
C. case-control study.
D. epidemiologic study.
ANS: A
Rationale: In this cohort study, a group of people who were born at approximately the same
time or share some characteristics of interest is the focus of the research. This study does not
possess the characteristics of a case-control or cross-sectional study, and epidemiologic
study is not an existing methodology.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 8-9
NAT: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Understand NOT: Multiple Choice

15. As part of a community class, student nurses are developing a class to teach expectant
parents the importance of having their child properly secured in a child safety seat. During
the class, the students are going to have a safety officer examine the car seats that the
parents have installed in their vehicles. This is an example of which type of prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Prognosis enhancement
ANS: A
Rationale: Primary prevention is directed at keeping disease from occurring by removing
risk factors. Some primary prevention is often mandated by law like child safety seats.
Secondary prevention focuses on screening and early disease identification whereas tertiary
prevention is directed at interventions to prevent complications of a disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 9-10
NAT: Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
TOP: Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
BLM: Cognitive Level: Apply NOT: Multiple Choice

16. A multidisciplinary healthcare team operates a program aimed at the prevention,
identification, and treatment of diabetes in the community. Which aspect of the program
would be most likely to be classified as secondary prevention?
A. Regularly scheduled wound dressing changes for clients who have foot ulcers
secondary to peripheral neuropathy and impaired wound healing
B. Teaching school children how a nutritious, traditional diet can lessen their chances
of developing adult-onset diabetes
C. Staffing a booth where community residents who are attending a baseball
tournament can have their blood glucose levels checked



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