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Test Bank for Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 9th Edition by Linda D. Urden, Kathleen M. Stacy Included All Chapters 1-41 with rationales $17.99   Add to cart

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Test Bank for Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 9th Edition by Linda D. Urden, Kathleen M. Stacy Included All Chapters 1-41 with rationales

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Test Bank for Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 9th Edition by Linda D. Urden, Kathleen M. Stacy Included All Chapters 1-41 with rationales 1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of inadequate oxygenation? A) Bradycardia B) Cyanosis C) Hyperventilation D) Hypertension ...

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  • November 4, 2024
  • 55
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • nursing
  • Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and management
  • Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and management
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Test Bank for Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and
Management 9th Edition by Linda D. Urden, Kathleen M. Stacy
Included All Chapters 1-41 with rationales

1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of inadequate oxygenation?

A) Bradycardia
B) Cyanosis
C) Hyperventilation
D) Hypertension

Answer: B
Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, is a clear
indicator of inadequate oxygenation.



2. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in a critically ill
patient?

A) To provide nutrition
B) To maintain electrolyte balance
C) To restore intravascular volume
D) To promote diuresis

Answer: C
Rationale: The primary purpose of IV fluids in critically ill patients is to restore intravascular
volume and maintain adequate perfusion.



3. Which vital sign is most concerning for a patient with heart failure?

A) Pulse rate of 80 bpm
B) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
C) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
D) Temperature of 98.6°F

Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated respiratory rate (tachypnea) can indicate respiratory distress or fluid
overload in heart failure patients.

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4. In which condition would you expect to see the presence of crackles (rales)
upon auscultation?

A) Asthma
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Chronic bronchitis
D) Pneumothorax

Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles (rales) are commonly associated with pulmonary edema due to fluid
accumulation in the alveoli.



5. What does a high serum lactate level indicate?

A) Adequate perfusion
B) Tissue hypoxia
C) Normal metabolism
D) Dehydration

Answer: B
Rationale: A high serum lactate level indicates tissue hypoxia and poor perfusion, often seen in
sepsis or shock.



6. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient experiencing acute
respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A) Administering a bronchodilator
B) Providing supplemental oxygen
C) Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position
D) Initiating continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Answer: D
Rationale: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can help maintain alveolar recruitment
and improve oxygenation in ARDS.



7. What is the main goal of sedation in critically ill patients?

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A) To prevent pain
B) To reduce anxiety and agitation
C) To induce sleep
D) To facilitate communication

Answer: B
Rationale: The main goal of sedation is to reduce anxiety and agitation, making it easier for
patients to tolerate invasive procedures.



8. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with diuretic
therapy?

A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypermagnesemia

Answer: B
Rationale: Diuretic therapy frequently leads to hyponatremia due to increased renal excretion of
sodium.



9. What is the most effective position for a patient with suspected acute
myocardial infarction (AMI)?

A) Supine
B) Trendelenburg
C) Sitting up and leaning forward
D) Lying flat

Answer: C
Rationale: Sitting up and leaning forward can relieve pressure on the heart and improve comfort
for patients experiencing AMI.



10. Which condition is characterized by a rapid, shallow breathing pattern?

A) DKA
B) Hyperventilation syndrome
C) Hypoventilation
D) Asthma exacerbation

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Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperventilation syndrome is characterized by rapid, shallow breathing, often linked
to anxiety or panic attacks.



11. In a patient with septic shock, what is the primary goal of fluid resuscitation?

A) To maintain a urine output of 30 mL/hr
B) To restore blood pressure
C) To improve heart rate
D) To correct electrolyte imbalances

Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of fluid resuscitation in septic shock is to restore blood pressure
and improve perfusion.



12. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient receiving
heparin therapy?

A) Hemoglobin
B) Platelets
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Prothrombin time (PT)

Answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the anticoagulant
effect of heparin therapy.



13. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a tension pneumothorax?

A) Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
B) Jugular vein distention
C) Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
D) Hypotension

Answer: C
Rationale: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side is a classic sign of tension
pneumothorax due to mediastinal shift.

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