©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/30/2024 11:32 PM
AAPD Remembered Exam Questions And
Answers 100% Pass
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - answer✔plaque on maxillary anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? - answer✔age
2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC status? -
answer✔White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - answer✔1) Mother/caregiver
with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three between-meal sugar-
containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with a bottle containing natural or
added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child has active white spot lesions or enamel
defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - answer✔1) Child has
special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - answer✔1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated drinking
water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated toothpaste; 3)
Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has dental home/regular dental
care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - answer✔1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural plate. 2)
bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - answer✔6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - answer✔basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - answer✔tooth buds
, ©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/30/2024 11:32 PM
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the permanent
2nd molar begin initiation? - answer✔1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - answer✔enamel organ, dental papilla, dental sac
Name the components of the enamel organ. - answer✔Inner enamel epithelium (concavity),
outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________. - answer✔neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - answer✔Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage,
advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - answer✔inner and outer
enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - answer✔rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. -
answer✔Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________. -
answer✔size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - answer✔anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI, DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to _____________. -
answer✔Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - answer✔males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - answer✔permanent
dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - answer✔maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - answer✔3rd
molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - answer✔Apert's, cleidocranial dysplasia,
Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome I,
Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down syndrome
, ©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/30/2024 11:32 PM
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - answer✔supernumerary teeth, cleft palate,
delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - answer✔supernumerary teeth, delayed
development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - answer✔supernumerary teeth, osteomas of the jaw,
delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - answer✔supernumerary teeth, midface hypoplasia,
inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - answer✔port-wine stains which follow the
trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform calcifications
of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects, bleeding and gingival
hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - answer✔supernumerary teeth and/or
hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - answer✔supernumerary teeth, mandibular
hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia
Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - answer✔hypodontia, conical crowns, deficient
alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - answer✔hypodontia, short stature, frontal bossing,
midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). -
answer✔hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of maxillary sulcus,
premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - answer✔hypodontia, conical crowns, delayed
eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin, hyperpigmentation
Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - answer✔Hypodontia, midface hypoplasia, delayed
eruption, short stature, eye malformation
, ©THEBRIGHT EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/30/2024 11:32 PM
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - answer✔hypodontia, microcephaly, midface hypoplasia,
dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - answer✔Hypodontia, prominent lips, microdontia,
enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - answer✔Primary
Describe twinning. - answer✔Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which results in a
supernumerary mirror image tooth.
What is the cause of taurodontism? - answer✔failure of normal invagination of Hertwig's
epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - answer✔Klinefelter syndrome, tricho-dento-
osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital syndrome II), ectodermal dysplasia,
Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - answer✔taurodontism, small cranial
dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome, gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - answer✔Dolichocephalic with
frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse hair at birth, enamel
hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - answer✔Lobed tongue, upper lip/midline cleft,
oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - answer✔type I- hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - answer✔AI type IV
with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - answer✔Predentin matrix (normal
mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
answer✔Shields Type I
Describe Shields Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta. - answer✔Occurs with osteogenesis
imperfecta, primary teeth more severely affected, permanent first molars and central incisors
