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ABFM ITE ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2025 WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND WELLVERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+ |GUARANTEED PASS |ABFM ITE LATEST 2024/2025$26.49
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ABFM ITE ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2025 WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND WELLVERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+ |GUARANTEED PASS |ABFM ITE LATEST 2024/2025
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Course
ABFM ITE
Institution
ABFM ITE
ABFM ITE ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2025
WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND WELLVERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+
|GUARANTEED PASS |ABFM ITE LATEST
2024/2025
A 24-year-old female presents to your office in Maine in November because, for
the past few weeks, she has been sleepin...
ABFM ITE ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2025
WITH PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND WELL-
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+
|GUARANTEED PASS |ABFM ITE LATEST
2024/2025
A 24-year-old female presents to your office in Maine in November because, for
the past few weeks, she has been sleeping much more than usual and craving
sweets. She says she has gained 8 lb since her symptoms started. She enjoys her
job and is in a stable relationship. She feels somewhat depressed but does not have
any suicidal or homicidal thoughts. She has had similar episodes in the fall and
winter for the past 4 years, and her symptoms usually resolve in the spring. The
symptoms are starting to affect her quality of life and she asks for your advice.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment at this time?
A) Vitamin D supplementation
B) Trazodone
C) Light therapy
D) A high-protein diet - ANSWER-ANSWER: C
This patient presents with symptoms consistent with seasonal affective disorder
(SAD). According to the DSM-5, this condition is not defined as a separate
diagnosis, but instead a variant of major depressive or bipolar disorder. SAD is a
,mood disorder with depressive symptoms occurring at a specific time of year with
full remission in between episodes, which usually occur during fall and winter
months. A less common form can present during summer or spring. Criteria
specify that full remission must occur when the specific season ends and there
must be at least two consecutive years of mood episodes. The pathology is unclear
but risk factors include family history, living at a more northern latitude, female
sex, and age 18-30. First-line therapy for the treatment of SAD includes light
therapy (SOR A), with a response rate of about 50%; cognitive therapy (SOR A);
and antidepressants such as SSRIs (SOR B). Vitamin D supplementation is not a
first-line treatment for SAD, and trazodone would not be used for someone who is
already having issues with excessive sleeping. There is no convincing evidence
that a high-protein diet is an effective treatment for SAD. For this patient with
regular recurrences, long-term preventive intervention each year with light therapy
starting in the early fall is indicated.
While reviewing laboratory studies for a patient who was recently started on
antihypertensive medication, you note new hyperkalemia. Which one of the
following medications is most likely to cause this finding?
A) Amlodipine (Norvasc)
B) Chlorthalidone
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Metoprolol
E) Olmesartan (Benicar) - ANSWER-ANSWER: E
Hyperkalemia is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor
blockers such as Olmesartan. The risk of hyperkalemia is increased with chronic
kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, moderately severe to severe heart failure, NSAID
use, and older adults. Chlorthalidone and hydrochlorothiazide can cause
hypokalemia, while amlodipine and metoprolol have no significant effect on
potassium levels.
,An obese 40-year-old female with diabetes mellitus sees you for evaluation of
painful, deep-seated nodules in both axillae. On examination, you note nodules in
the axillae with purulent drainage and associated scarring.
This condition is associated with which one of the following?
A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B) Crohn's disease
C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Trauma - ANSWER-ANSWER: B
The patient has hidradenitis suppurativa, a chronic folliculitis affecting
intertriginous areas in the axillae and the groin that may also occur around the anus
and nipples. Treatment depends on severity and ranges from topical to systemic
antibiotics. Hidradenitis suppurativa is associated with obesity, diabetes mellitus,
Crohn's disease, arthritis and spondyloarthropathy, metabolic syndrome, polycystic
ovary syndrome, pyoderma gangrenosum, and trisomy 21.
There are three stages:
- stage I is single or multiple abscesses without sinus tracts or scarring
- stage II is abscess recurrence with sinus tracts and scarring and widely separated
lesions
- stage III is diffuse abscesses with interconnecting sinus tracts.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has no typical skin manifestation. Dermatitis
herpetiformis is associated with celiac disease and has clusters of pruritic lesions.
Systemic lupus erythematosus has cutaneous manifestations of a malar rash and
may involve subcutaneous lesions without scarring. Hidradenitis suppurativa is not
associated with trauma.
A 53-year-old female sees you for a routine health maintenance visit. The patient
reports that she is newly menopausal and asks you about osteoporosis screening.
, Her past medical history includes morbid obesity, and her family history includes
type 2 diabetes in her mother and hypertension in her father. The patient is a
nonsmoker and rarely consumes alcohol. Her only medication is loratadine
(Claritin), 10 mg daily. Which one of the following would you recommend
regarding osteoporosis screening for this patient?
A) No screening now or in the future, and calcium supplementation only
B) No screening now or in the future, and calcium and vitamin D supplementation
C) Radiography of her hip and lumbar spine now
D) A DEXA scan now
E) A DEXA scan at age 65 - ANSWER-ANSWER: E
For women with no risk factors, the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force
(USPSTF) recommends screening for osteoporosis in women 65 years and older
with bone measurement testing such as DEXA to prevent osteoporotic fractures
(grade B recommendation). The USPSTF recommends screening for osteoporosis
with DEXA in postmenopausal women younger than age 65 who are at increased
risk of osteoporosis, as determined by a formal clinical risk assessment tool (B
recommendation). Factors associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis include
smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, low body weight, and a parental history
of hip fracture. This patient is not at increased risk for osteoporosis, so a DEXA
scan at age 65 would be most appropriate. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
to prevent osteoporosis are no longer routinely recommended. Plain radiography
would not be recommended as screening for osteoporosis.
A 48-year-old male with schizophrenia presents for a new patient visit after
recently relocating to your area. He has been stable on clozapine (Clozaril) for the
past 15 years and asks you to refill his prescription. He has been told the earliest
available appointment with a local psychiatric provider is in 3 months. Under the
Clozapine Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program, which one
of the following is required to prescribe clozapine to this patient?
A) A signed patient consent form
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