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CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 3 with 100% Correct answers $8.49   Add to cart

Exam (elaborations)

CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 3 with 100% Correct answers

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  • Course
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
  • Institution
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner

What is the primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)? • A) To conduct vulnerability assessments • B) To monitor and respond to security incidents • C) To develop security policies • Answer: B) To monitor and respond to security incidents • Explanation: A SOC is desi...

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  • October 26, 2024
  • 6
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
  • CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
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CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 3 with 100% Correct answers


1. What is the primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?

• A) To conduct vulnerability assessments
• B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• C) To develop security policies
• Answer: B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: A SOC is designed to continuously monitor and analyze an organization’s security
posture, responding to security incidents as they occur.

2. Which of the following best describes a "denial-of-service" (DoS) attack?

• A) An attack that steals sensitive information
• B) An attack that renders a system unavailable to users
• C) An attack that involves gaining unauthorized access
• Answer: B) An attack that renders a system unavailable to users
• Explanation: A DoS attack aims to disrupt the normal functioning of a service, making it
unavailable to legitimate users.

3. What is the function of a firewall in network security?

• A) To monitor user activity
• B) To encrypt sensitive data
• C) To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules
• Answer: C) To control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules
• Explanation: Firewalls are used to filter traffic and enforce policies that help protect networks
from unauthorized access and attacks.

4. What does "incident response" entail in a cybersecurity context?

• A) Preventing all cyber threats
• B) Identifying, managing, and mitigating security incidents
• C) Designing new security software
• Answer: B) Identifying, managing, and mitigating security incidents
• Explanation: Incident response refers to the systematic approach to addressing and managing
the aftermath of a security breach or attack.

5. Which of the following best defines "malware"?

• A) Software designed to improve system performance
• B) Software specifically designed to harm or exploit any programmable device
• C) A type of hardware security device
• Answer: B) Software specifically designed to harm or exploit any programmable device

, • Explanation: Malware includes a range of harmful software designed to infiltrate, damage, or
disable computers and networks.

6. What is the main goal of threat hunting?

• A) To improve system performance
• B) To identify and mitigate potential threats proactively
• C) To reduce incident response times
• Answer: B) To identify and mitigate potential threats proactively
• Explanation: Threat hunting involves actively searching for signs of threats in a network before
they can cause harm, rather than waiting for alerts.

7. Which of the following is a primary function of an Intrusion Prevention
System (IPS)?

• A) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity
• B) To block and prevent identified threats
• C) To provide user training on security best practices
• Answer: B) To block and prevent identified threats
• Explanation: An IPS actively monitors and takes action against malicious traffic by blocking it to
protect the network.

8. Which of the following is a key principle of security monitoring?

• A) Logging should only be enabled on critical systems
• B) Monitoring should be continuous and automated
• C) Monitoring should only occur during business hours
• Answer: B) Monitoring should be continuous and automated
• Explanation: Continuous and automated monitoring allows for timely detection of anomalies
and potential threats, improving overall security.

9. What is a common characteristic of a successful phishing attack?

• A) It involves exploiting software vulnerabilities
• B) It uses legitimate-looking communications to deceive targets
• C) It requires physical access to a device
• Answer: B) It uses legitimate-looking communications to deceive targets
• Explanation: Phishing attacks often mimic trusted entities to trick individuals into divulging
sensitive information, making them appear legitimate.

10. What is the purpose of a vulnerability management program?

• A) To ensure compliance with regulations
• B) To identify, assess, and remediate vulnerabilities
• C) To provide training for security personnel
• Answer: B) To identify, assess, and remediate vulnerabilities

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