Comprehensive WHNP Board Exam Preparation:
Women's Health Nurse Practitioner Certification
Guide Exam New Version Updated 2025
1. Postpartum "baby blues" typically begin:
o A. Immediately after birth
o B. Within a few days following the birth
o C. Several weeks after delivery
o D. After the first postpartum month
Answer: B. Within a few days following the birth
Rationale: The "baby blues" typically begin within the first few days postpartum and last up to
two weeks. This is characterized by mood swings, crying spells, anxiety, and difficulty sleeping.
2. A risk factor for postpartum psychosis is:
o A. History of depression
o B. Multiple births (i.e., twins, triplets)
o C. History of bipolar disorder
o D. Illegal drug use
Answer: C. History of bipolar disorder
Rationale: A history of bipolar disorder significantly increases the risk of developing
postpartum psychosis, a severe mental health condition that requires urgent medical care.
3. For a woman who was normotensive before 20 weeks of gestation, an indication of
preeclampsia is blood pressure of more than:
o A. 120 mm Hg systolic and 80 mm Hg diastolic
o B. 130 mm Hg systolic and 85 mm Hg diastolic
o C. 140 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic
o D. 150 mm Hg systolic and 95 mm Hg diastolic
Answer: C. 140 mm Hg systolic and 90 mm Hg diastolic
Rationale: Preeclampsia is diagnosed when blood pressure is ≥140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks of
gestation in a previously normotensive woman, often with proteinuria or organ dysfunction.
4. What should be done with a functional cyst or dermoid cyst?
o A. Immediate surgery for both
o B. Monitor a functional cyst; surgical removal of dermoid cyst if symptomatic
o C. Hormonal therapy for both
o D. Ignore unless painful
Answer: B. Monitor a functional cyst; surgical removal of dermoid cyst if symptomatic
Rationale: Functional cysts often resolve spontaneously and can be monitored, while dermoid
cysts, which contain fat and may cause torsion, usually require surgical removal if symptomatic.
5. The most common form of malignant ovarian tumor is:
o A. Germ cell tumors
, o B. Sex cord-stromal tumors
o C. Epithelial tumors
o D. Lymphomas
Answer: C. Epithelial tumors
Rationale: Epithelial tumors account for the majority of malignant ovarian tumors, making up
about 85-90% of cases.
6. The most common clinical finding of endometrial cancer is:
o A. Pelvic pain
o B. Postmenopausal bleeding
o C. Enlarged uterus
o D. Abdominal distention
Answer: B. Postmenopausal bleeding
Rationale: The most common symptom of endometrial cancer is abnormal uterine bleeding,
especially in postmenopausal women.
7. What is Mullerian agenesis, and what is the karyotype?
o A. Absence of a vagina, normal karyotype (46xx)
o B. Abnormal uterus, Turner syndrome karyotype (45x)
o C. Overgrowth of uterine tissue, normal karyotype (46xx)
o D. Fibroids, karyotype (47xxx)
Answer: A. Absence of a vagina, normal karyotype (46xx)
Rationale: Mullerian agenesis involves the absence of a functional uterus and vagina, though the
karyotype is normal female (46xx).
8. Diagnostic criteria for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis include:
o A. Symptoms lasting more than 5 days
o B. Upper respiratory symptoms persisting beyond 7-10 days or severe symptoms
within the first 3-4 days
o C. Mild congestion without fever
o D. Cough and sore throat for 3 days
Answer: B. Upper respiratory symptoms persisting beyond 7-10 days or severe symptoms
within the first 3-4 days
Rationale: Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis is diagnosed when symptoms last beyond 7-10 days or
if severe symptoms, such as high fever, occur within the first 3-4 days of illness.
9. What is the most common cardiac issue with young women?
o A. Aortic stenosis
o B. Mitral valve prolapse
o C. Coronary artery disease
o D. Ventricular fibrillation
Answer: B. Mitral valve prolapse
Rationale: Mitral valve prolapse is the most common cardiac condition in young women. It is
often asymptomatic but can present with a characteristic late systolic crescendo murmur.
10. A positive Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates:
, • A. Immunity from vaccination
• B. Resolved infection
• C. Active Hepatitis B infection
• D. Early stages of Hepatitis C infection
Answer: C. Active Hepatitis B infection
Rationale: A positive HBsAg indicates an active infection, while Hepatitis B E-antigen
(HBeAg) positivity suggests active viral replication and higher infectivity.
11. Approximately what percentage of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in
spontaneous abortion?
• A. 10%
• B. 20%
• C. 30%
• D. 40%
Answer: B. 20%
Rationale: Approximately 20% of all clinically recognized pregnancies end in spontaneous
abortion, often due to chromosomal abnormalities.
12. Approximately what percentage of spontaneous abortions are associated with
chromosomal defects?
• A. 40%
• B. 50%
• C. 60%
• D. 70%
Answer: C. 60%
Rationale: Chromosomal abnormalities account for approximately 60% of spontaneous
abortions, especially in the first trimester.
13. The classic clinical triad of ectopic pregnancy includes:
• A. Abdominal pain, fever, hypertension
• B. Vaginal bleeding, hypertension, headache
• C. Abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, adnexal mass
• D. Vaginal discharge, fever, pelvic pain
Answer: C. Abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, adnexal mass
Rationale: The classic clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy includes abdominal pain,
vaginal bleeding, and adnexal mass in about 50% of cases.
14. In the first weeks of a viable intrauterine pregnancy, serum quantitative hCG levels
usually double every:
• A. 12 hours
• B. 24 hours
• C. 36 hours
• D. 48 hours
Answer: D. 48 hours
Rationale: Serum quantitative hCG levels typically double every 48 hours in early pregnancy,
peaking around 10 weeks gestation at 100,000 mIU/mL.
, 15. Define the following types of abortion: complete, inevitable, threatened, and
incomplete.
• A. Complete: Products of conception are fully expelled
• B. Inevitable: Uterine contents are in the process of being expelled
• C. Threatened: Viable pregnancy with vaginal bleeding
• D. Incomplete: Some products of conception remain in the uterus
Answer: All are correct
Rationale: These are the standard definitions for various types of abortions, with complete
involving full expulsion, inevitable meaning ongoing expulsion, threatened indicating a viable
pregnancy with bleeding, and incomplete meaning partial expulsion of the products of
conception.
16. The actual birth occurs during which stage of labor?
• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4
Answer: B. Stage 2
Rationale: The second stage of labor is when the baby is delivered. The first stage involves
cervical dilation, and the third stage is the delivery of the placenta.
17. Standard of care in Nursing is:
• A. Defined by individual hospitals
• B. Based on the care that a reasonable, similarly educated and situated professional
would provide
• C. Determined by each nurse's opinion of what is best for the patient
• D. Decided by state laws exclusively
Answer: B. Based on the care that a reasonable, similarly educated and situated professional
would provide
Rationale: The standard of care refers to the level and type of care that a reasonably competent
and skilled healthcare professional, with a similar background and in a similar community,
would have provided under similar circumstances.
18. What is proximal cause in malpractice?
• A. The connection between the nurse's action and the injury
• B. The duty of care provided to the patient
• C. The exact point at which care was negligent
• D. The patient’s contribution to their injury
Answer: A. The connection between the nurse's action and the injury
Rationale: Proximal cause refers to the direct link between a breach in the standard of care and
the injury or harm that resulted.
19. A major purpose of the Privacy Rule is to:
• A. Prevent healthcare providers from disclosing any patient information
• B. Define and limit the circumstances in which an individual's protected health
