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APEA 3P EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 2025 GRADED A+ $14.69   Add to cart

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APEA 3P EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 2025 GRADED A+

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APEA 3P EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 2025 GRADED A+ The relationship between colon polyps and colon cancer is those polyps: a. eventually, all become malignant. b. have a slow progression to colon cancer. c. have a rapid progression to colon cancer. d. have no relation...

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  • October 11, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • APEA 3P
  • APEA 3P
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APEA 3P EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES 2025 GRADED
A+
The relationship between colon polyps and colon cancer is those polyps:

a.eventually, all become malignant.

b. have a slow progression to colon cancer.

c. have a rapid progression to colon cancer.

d.have no relationship to colon cancer.

B.

Colon polyps are usually slow-growing and take a long time to progress to cancer.
This is the reason that a colonoscopy does not need to be repeated annually. While
not all polyps grow slowly, this is the usual progression.


A 5-year-old has been diagnosed with pinworms. He lives with his mother. There are
no other members of the household. How should his mother be managed?

a. Reassure the mother that if she develops symptoms, she will need to be treated.


b.Visually assess the mother’s rectum for redness or presence of worms.

c. Have the mother collect a stool specimen and send it to the laboratory.

d. Perform the “scotch tape” test and look at the collection under the microscope.

D.

The diagnosis of pinworms (Enterobiasis) is made by using a piece of scotch tape
ona tongue depressor. It is touched against the patient’s rectum. The greatest yield of
eggs will occur during the nighttime or early AM. Eggs will be found here if they are
present. Worms and eggs are rarely found in stool specimens, so this is not a good
plan. When the scotch tape is examined under a low power microscope, the eggs
will be easily visualized since they are large and bean shaped. The finding of an

,adult worm would confirm the diagnosis. These are large enough to be seen with
the naked eye. If the mother is symptomatic, she should be treated with or without a
rectal exam. It is very likely she is infected.

A patient has been diagnosed with hepatitis B. The most commonly reported risk
factor is:

a. drinking contaminated water.


b.eating contaminated food.


c. exposure to blood.

d. sexual exposure.

D.

Hepatitis B is transmitted by blood and body fluids. While exposure to infected blood
or blood products would significantly increase the risk of infection in unvaccinated
people, this is much less likely than becoming infected via sexual exposure or IV
drug use. Hepatitis A is transmitted via fecal-oral routes. Drinkingcontaminated water
and eating contaminated food implicate hepatitis A as the etiologic agent.

The three most common causes of bacterial diarrhea in the US are Salmonella,
Campylobacter, and:

a. E. coli.

b. Enterovirus.

c.Yersinia.

d. Shigella.

D.

Shigella will be shed continuously in the stool and should be easily identified on stool
culture. When bacterial gastroenteritis is suspected, a stool specimen could be
ordered for confirmation. Generally, these three pathogens are easily identified if they
are present. Enterovirus produces a viral form of diarrhea. Yersinia produces the
deadly disease called bubonic plague. E. coli is a typical colonic pathogen.

An 83-year-old patient is diagnosed with diverticulitis. The most common complaintis:

,a. rectal bleeding.


b. bloating and cramping.

c. left lower quadrant pain.

d. frequent belching and flatulence.



C.

Diverticular disease is more common in older adults. About 70% of patients
diagnosed with diverticulitis have left lower quadrant pain. Rectal bleeding may have
varied etiologies, such as rectal carcinoma or hemorrhoids. Bloating and cramping
are often found in patients with diverticular disease (diverticulosis) but not specifically
diverticulitis. Belching and flatulence are not specifically associated with diverticulosis.


What is true regarding older adults who are overweight?

a. This is clearly associated with increased mortality in older adults.

b. Mortality in older adults related to overweight states declines over time.

c.BMI is a good way to assess nutritional status in older adults.

d. There are no potential metabolic or functional benefits to weight loss in older

adults.

B.

Overweight and obese states are not as important in predicting mortality in older
adults as they are in their younger counterparts. After age 65 years (some studies
demonstrate after age 70), weight is less significant in decreasing risk for mortality
than in younger adults. There are some benefits to weight loss in the obese older
adults. One of them is better balance and decreased risk for falls. Others include less
sleep apnea, decreased risk of diabetes, and decreased rates of shortness of breath
with respiratory and cardiac diseases.

What medication used to treat patients who have GERD provides the fastest relief of
heartburn symptoms?

a. Calcium carbonate

, b.Ranitidine


c. Amantadine


d. Pantoprazole

A.

Calcium carbonate is an antacid. It provides rapid changes in gastric pH. This
provides relief that can be noticed immediately. The increase in pH lasts for about 30
minutes and corresponds with resolution of symptoms. However, as pH decreases
within 30 minutes, symptoms may return. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker. Itprovides
relief in 1-2 hours. This usually lasts for about 6-12 hours. Amantadine is an antiviral
not used to treat GERD. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. This provides relief
after several hours or days of daily consumption.

An 84-year-old presents with a stated involuntary weight loss. He states that he’s lost
about 6 pounds in the last 6 or 8 weeks. What statement below is NOT part ofthe
assessment?

a. The weight loss should be measured today and again in the next few weeks.


b. A laboratory evaluation should be performed.

c. Evaluate his dietary intake.

d. Evaluate his upper and lower extremity muscle mass.

D.

Involuntary weight loss in older adults is often due to malignancy or disease. The
initial assessment of an older adult who reports involuntary weight loss is to
document the weight loss. If prior measurements are part of the patient’s chart, this
would be helpful. Laboratory assessment should also be performed. Consideration
should be given to performing a CBC, TSH, and metabolic panel. Also consider
chestand abdominal X-rays. If all are normal, he should be monitored and reweighed
on the same scale for comparison. A dietary consult should be ordered. However,
even with negative initial findings, a significant number of patients are later found to
have disease or malignancy

A patient has a positive hepatitis B surface antibody. This means he:

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