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NURS 620&621 Exam Questions And correct Answers
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NURS 620&621 Exam Questions And correct AnswersA 22-year-old female patient presents with a "pimple" of her right eyelid. On examination
a 2-mm pustule is noted on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most
consistent with:
A. a chalazion
B. a hordeolum
C. blepharitis
D. cellulitis - ANSWER B. a hordeolum
Treatment options for uncomplicated hordeolum include all of the following except:
A. erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
B. warm compresses to the affected area
C. incision and drainage
D. oral antimicrobial therapy - ANS D. oral antimicrobial therapy
When counseling a patient with scarlet fever, the NP reflects that:
A. there is increased risk for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
B. the rash often peels during recovery
C. an injectable cephalosporin is the preferred treatment option
D. throat culture is usually negative for group A streptococci - ANS B. the rash often
peels during recovery
The incubation period for M. pneumoniae is usually:
A. less than 1 week
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
,D. 3 weeks - ANSWER D. 3 weeks
Incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 6 to 9 days
D. 10 to 13 days - ANSWER B. 3 to 5 days
All of the following are common causes of penicillin treatment failure in streptococcal
pharyngitis except:
A. infection with a beta-lactamase producing Streptococcus strain
B. failure to initiate or complete the antimicrobial course
C. concomitant infection or carriage with a beta-lactamase-producing organism
D. inadequate penicillin dosage - ANSWER A. infection with a beta-lactamase producing
Streptococcus strain
Oral decongestant use should be avoided in patients with:
A. allergic rhinitis
B. migraine headache
C. cardiovascular disease
D. chronic bronchitis - ANSWER C. cardiovascular disease
In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:
A. an agent to relieve nasal itch
B. an inflammatory inhibitor
C. a rescue drug
D. an intervention in acute inflammation - ANSWER B. an inflammatory inhibitor
, The mechanism of action of Cromolyn is as a/an:
A. anti-immunoglobulin E antibody
B. vasoconstrictor
C. mast cell stabilizer
D. leukotriene modifier - ANSWER C. mast cell stabilizer
Therapeutic interventions for the patient in Question 1 (giant cell arteritis), should
include:
A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for many months
B. addition of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) to her antihypertensive
regimen
C. warfarin therapy
D. initiation of topirimate (Topamax) - ANSWER A. systemic corticosteroid therapy for
many months
A 74 year-old female with well-controlled hypertension on hydrochlorothiazide presents
with a 3-day history of unilateral throbbing headache with difficulty chewing because of
the pain. On physical examination you find a tender, noncompressible temporal artery.
BP is 160/88 mm Hg, apical pulse is 98 bpm, and respiratory rate is 22/min; the patient
appears quite uncomfortable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. giant cell arteritis
B. impending transient ischemic attack
C. complicated migraine
D. temporal mandibular joint dysfunction - ANSWER A. giant cell arteritis
One of the most serious complications of giant cell arteritis is:
A. hemiparesis
B. arthritis
C. blindness
D. uveitis - ANSWER C. blindness
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