NURS 5315 FINAL EXAM 2024 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS)
/ALREADY GRADED A+
1. The nurse practitioner is following up with a
patient who is actively abusing alcohol. Which action
should be completed by the nurse practitioner to
foster health promotion?
a. Prescribe daily thiamine supplementation
b. Educate the patient to eat less leafy green
vegetables.
c. Prescribe daily vitamin E supplementation.
d. Send the patient to the hospital for admission.
ANS: A
Patients who abuse ETOH have many nutritional
deficiencies, some of which include B vitamins, folic
acid, and phosphate. Therefore they should receive
thiamine supplementation.
,1. A patient with chronically uncontrolled
hypertension should be screened for which cellular
adaptative pattern?
a. Ventricular hypertrophy
b. Renal dysplasia
c. Ventricular hyperplasia
d. Cardiac Atrophy
ANS: A
Left ventricular hypertrophy occurs secondary to
hypertension cardiac cells do not undergo
hyperplasia or atrophy. Renal dysplasia does not
occur.
Which disorder results from an anamnestic immune
response?
Hemolytic Anemia of the New Born
Measles
Mumps
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Hemolytic anemia of the newborn results from an
secondary immune response mounted by the
mother. An infection with measles or mumps
triggers a primary immune response and RA is an
autoimmune condition.
The nurse practitioner is seeing a new patient with a
history of HIV for three years. The patient reports a
,history of pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
three years ago. His labs show a CD4 count of 500
and a viral load of 25,000. Which of the following
diagnoses should the NP assign the patient?
AIDS
HIV infection
PCP
HIV related syndrome
The most appropriate diagnosis is AIDS. AIDS is
defined by the presence of HIV and either a history of
an opportunistic infection or the presence of a
current opportunistic infection. PCP is an
opportunistic infection and a history of it changes the
diagnosis from HIV positive to AIDS. An individual
with HIV infection can also meet the criteria for an
AIDS diagnosis if their CD4 count drops below 200
even if it is a temporary drop. The patient is not
currently experiencing PCP so this is not an
appropriate diagnosis. If the patient did not have a
history of PCP then HIV infection would be an
appropriate diagnosis. HIV related syndrome is a
false diagnosis.
A patient in the ED is given an IV antibiotic to treat an
acute infection. Fifteen minutes after receiving the
antibiotic the patient is short of breath, has hives
and swollen eyes. Which process best describes the
, immune response in this scenario?
An IgE mediated immune reaction.
An immune response is trigged by an
antigen/antibody complex made of IgM and IgG
antibodies.
Autoantibodies attack cellular nuclear material.
A T-cell mediated immune response.
The condition this patient is experiencing is an acute
allergic reaction which is an IgE mediated response.
A patient with a cough, fever and fatigue is
diagnosed with influenza. Which of the following is
the best explanation for the patient s symptoms?
A systemic viremia
Release of cytokines
Release of acute phase reactants
Release of bradykinin
The patient's symptoms are directly related to the
inflammatory response which has been triggered by
the influenza infection. The release of cytokines are
responsible for the symptoms experienced by
patients infected with influenza. Influenza is not a
systemic infection and remains isolated to the
pulmonary cells; therefore, a viremia does not occur
when a person has influenza. Acute phase reactants
include ferritin, platelets, coagulation proteins, c-
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