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PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions and Answers (Latest Update 2024)
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PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions and Answers (Latest Update 2024)
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PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions andAnswers (Latest Update 2024)
You are treating a 20-year-old female with multiple aphthous
ulcers. She complains of a moderate amount of pain. You
decide to prescribe "magic mouthwash" for the patient to
swish and spit. Which of the following combinations of
medicines is appropriate? - Correct Answer ✅ A very
commonly used combination of medicines to promote relief of
discomfort and healing include liquid diphenhydramine,
antacid, tetracycline, and 2% viscous xylocaine.
A 17-year-old male is brought to your Emergency Department
by his girlfriend. She states that he has been behaving
strangely for the last three days, with rapidly fluctuating
moods ranging from euphoric to irritable and paranoid. The
patient states that he is fine, just a little nervous about an
upcoming test in school. His pulse is 126 beats per minute,
BP 182/106, pupils are widely dilated, and he is diaphoretic.
What is his most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute anxiety
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Cocaine intoxication
D. Heroin intoxication - Correct Answer ✅ he answer is C.
,PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions and
Answers (Latest Update 2024)
EXPLANATION: This patient's presentation with tachycardia,
hypertension, diaphoresis, and mydriasis along with the
behavioral changes is consistent with cocaine intoxication
cause somnolence and pinpoint pupils - Correct Answer ✅
Heroin withdrawal
A 67-year-old man presents with pain and stiffness in his
shoulders and hips lasting for several weeks with no history
of trauma. He also has complaints of headache, throat pain,
and jaw claudication. It is imperative to diagnose this patient
promptly in order to prevent which of the following
complications?
A. anemia
B. cerebral aneurysms
C. mononeuritis multiplex
D. ischemic optic neuropathy
E. respiratory tract complications - Correct Answer ✅ The
answer is D.
EXPLANATION: The most urgent need for diagnosis of a
patient with symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and
,PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions and
Answers (Latest Update 2024)
giant cell arteritis is to prevent blindness caused by ischemic
optic neuropathy as a result of occlusive arteritis of the
ophthalmic artery. Early diagnosis is imperative as the
neurological damage to the optic nerve is not reversible. Most
patients with this diagnosis will have a normochromic-
normocytic anemia, but this does not create urgency in
treatment. Cerebral aneurysms are not common findings with
PMR; large vessels such as the subclavian and aorta may be
involved in giant cell arthritis in 15% of patients. Mononeuritis
multiplex commonly presents with painful paralysis of a
shoulder, and respiratory tract complications are more
nonclassic findings with the presentation of PMR.
During an ophthalmoscopic exam you notice deep retinal
microvascular hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots. What is
the most likely cause of her visual disorder? - Correct
Answer ✅ The answer is D.
Diabetic retinopathy-EXPLANATION: The patient's symptoms
suggest a likelihood of diabetes. Retinal findings can include
microaneurysms, deep hemorrhages, a flame-shaped
hemorrhage, exudates, and cotton wool spots.
, PANCE Practice Exam #2 Questions and
Answers (Latest Update 2024)
A newborn male is diagnosed with Christmas factor
deficiency. What is the likelihood that he inherited this
disorder from his father?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50% - Correct Answer ✅ The answer is A.
EXPLANATION: All daughters of a hemophilic male are carriers
of hemophilia, whereas all sons are normal. Hemophilia B (or
Christmas factor deficiency) is one of only two sex-linked
pattern-bleeding disorders, and as such the disease occurs
almost exclusively in males. Sons of carriers have a 50%
chance of being affected and daughters of carriers have a
50% chance of being carriers themselves.
A 2-month-old female presents for a well child check. The
mother has no concerns and feels that the child is doing well.
On exam, there is no evidence of cyanosis and the peripheral
pulses are normal and equal. However, there is a fixed and
widely split S2, a right ventricular heave, and a systolic
ejection murmur present. The murmur is heard best at the
left sternal border second intercostal space. What is the most
common abnormality present on an ECG?
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