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Exam (elaborations)

Family Nurse practitioner exam with answers

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  • Course
  • Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
  • Institution
  • Family Nurse Practitioner Certification

Family Nurse practitioner exam with answers Sensitivity - Correct Answer defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who has the disease. Specificity - Correct Answer defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who is healthy or to detect the person without the disease. ...

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  • September 12, 2024
  • 33
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
  • Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
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purityireri233
Family Nurse practitioner exam with
answers
Sensitivity - Correct Answer defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who has
the disease.

Specificity - Correct Answer defined as the ability of a test to detect a person who is
healthy or to detect the person without the disease.

Trauma to Kiesselbachs plexus - Correct Answer will result in an anterior nosebleed

The diagnostic or gold standard test for sickle cell anemia, G6PD anemia, and alpha or
beta thalassemia - Correct Answer hemoglobin electrophoresis

questions asking for "action" - Correct Answer the initial action might be to interview
and gather subjective data or the history

erythromycin "allergy" vs adverse reaction - Correct Answer adverse reactio-
symptoms of nausea or GI upset
allergy -hives, angioedema

acute mononucleosis - Correct Answer the patient will most likely be a teen presenting
with the classic triad of sore throat, prolonged fatigue, and enlarged cervical nodes.

Alpha thalassemia - Correct Answer more common among Southeast Asians such as
filipinos

Lupus - Correct Answer present with malar rash(butterfly rash)Pts need to avoid or to
minimize sunlight exposure(photosensitivity)

treatment for polymyalgic rheumatica(PMR) - Correct Answer first line treatment for
PMR includes long-term steroids. Long term steroids are commonly used to control
symptoms(pain, stiffness on shoulders, and hip girdle). PMR pts have higher risk for
temporal arteritis.

Gold standard exam for temporal arteritis - Correct Answer biopsy of the temporal
artery. refer pt to opthalmologist for mgt

Finkelstein's test - Correct Answer Positive in De Quervains tenosynovitis

Anterior Drawer maneuver and Lachman maneuver - Correct Answer Positive if
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) of knee damaged. The knee may also be unstable

McMurray's sign - Correct Answer Positive in meniscus injuries of the knee

,Damaged Joints - Correct Answer order X-ray first, but MRI is the Gold Standard

Diabetic retinopathy - Correct Answer neovascularization, hard exudates, cotton wool
spots, and micoaneurysms

Hypertensive retinopathy - Correct Answer AV nicking, silver and or copper wire
arterioles

Checking deep tendon reflexes - Correct Answer absent(0),
hypoactive (1)
normal(2)
hyperactive(3)
clonus(4)

define clonus - Correct Answer Clonus is typically seen in patients with stroke,
multiple sclerosis, spinal cord damage and hepatic encephalopathy. Clonus has also
appeared after ingesting potent serotonergic drugs, where ingestion strongly predicts
imminent serotonin toxicity (serotonin syndrome). Clonus is a series of involuntary,
rhythmic, muscular contractions and relaxations. Clonus is a sign of certain neurological
conditions, particularly associated with upper motor neuron lesions involving
descending motor pathways, and in many cases is, accompanied by spasticity (another
form of hyperexcitability).Unlike small, spontaneous twitches known as fasciculations
(usually caused by lower motor neuron pathology), clonus causes large motions that are
usually initiated by a reflex.

A rare but serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is - Correct Answer angioedema

A common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a - Correct Answer dry cough(10%)

First line drug to treat hypertension in diabetics and patients with mild renal disease
because of their renal protective properties - Correct Answer ACE inhibitors or ARBS

Penicillin - Correct Answer amoxicillin(broad-spectrum PCN) Penicillin VK

Macrolide - Correct Answer erythromycin, azithromycin(Z-Pack), or
clarithromycin(Biaxin)

Cephalosporins: - Correct Answer 1st generation(Keflex), 2nd generation(Cefaclor,
Ceftin, Cefzil)3rd generation(Rocephin, Suprax, Omnicef)

Quinolones with gram positive coverage - Correct Answer levofloxacin(Levaquin),
moxifloxacin(Avelox), gatifloxacin(Tequin)

Quinolones - Correct Answer ciprofloxacin(Cipro), ofloxacin(Floxin)

,Sulfa - Correct Answer trimethoprim/sulfamethazole(Bactrim, Septra),
nitrofurantoin(Macrobid),

Tetracyclines - Correct Answer tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline(Minocin)

NSAID - Correct Answer ibuprofen, naproxen(aleve, Anaprox)

Cox-2 inhibitors - Correct Answer celecoxib (celebrex)

Antitussives - Correct Answer dextromorphan(Robitussin), benzonate(Tessalon
Perles)

Drugs allowed for pregnant or lactating women - Correct Answer Category B

Pregnancy in pain - Correct Answer order Tylenol instead of Ibuprofen

Avoid nitrofurantoin and sulfa drugs during 3rd trimester - Correct Answer increase
the risk of hyperbilirubinemia

best way method of spreading viruses or bacteria is - Correct Answer making them
airborne or nebulized

treatment of cutaneous anthrax - Correct Answer Ciprofloxacin 500mg orally BID for
60 days or 8 weeks. If pt allergic to ciprofloxacin , use doxycycline 100mg BID

Good communication rules - Correct Answer Ask open ended questions, do not
reassure patients, avoid angering the patient, and respect the patients culture.

Eriksons Stages of Psychosocial Development - Correct Answer Stage 1: Infancy --
Age 0 to 1
Crisis: Trust vs. Mistrust
Stage 2: Toddler -- Age 1 to 2
Crisis: Autonomy (Independence) vs. Doubt (or Shame)
Stage 3: Early Childhood -- Age 2 to 6
Crisis: Initiative vs. Guilt
Stage 4: Elementary and Middle School Years -- Age 6 to 12
Crisis: Competence (aka. "Industry") vs. Inferiority
Stage 5: Adolescence -- Age 12 to 18
Crisis: Identity vs. Role Confusion
Stage 6: Young Adulthood -- Age 19 to 40
Crisis: Intimacy vs. Isolation
Stage 7: Middle Adulthood -- Age 40 to 65
Crisis: Generativity vs. Stagnation Stage 8: Late Adulthood -- Age 65 to death
Crisis: Integrity vs. Despair Important

, primary vs secondary - Correct Answer "Will performing this action prevent the
disease or the social condition from happening? If it does, then it is considered as
primary prevention(if it doesn, then it is secondary)

breast self exam and genital self exam - Correct Answer considered secondary
prevention

tertiary prevention - Correct Answer involves not only rehabilitation, but also includes
actiivities that will help to prevent complications from disease treatment, such as patient
education about medication side effects or the proper use of equipment such as cane.
Support groups for a disease /condition are all considered as part of a tertiary
prevention activity.

Primary prevention - Correct Answer (prevent disease.injury/condition)-youth violence
prevention, bullying prevention, presonal safety promotion, disease prevention-
immunization, using suncreen, healthy lifestyle promotion, promotion of OSHA lawas-
workplace safety, EPA laws-clean water, anipollution laws

secondary prevention - Correct Answer (Detect disease.condition as Early as
Possible)
any lab test to screen disease, US preventive Services Task Force-screening rec-
mammograms, PSA, PPD, screening for high risk behaviour-suicide, depression,
personal action to detect cancer

Tertiary prevention - Correct Answer (Limiting Further harm and disability)
All types of rehabilitation-cardiac, pt/ot, speech therapy , addition/drug rehab, support
groups, exercise for an obese person

clue cells - Correct Answer mature squamous epithelial cells with numerous bacteria
noted on the cell borders(bacterial vaginosis)

Bacterial Vaginosis - Correct Answer has a alkaline pH(vagina normally has an acidic
pH of 4.0) BV is the only vaginal condition with the only alkaline pH for the exam. BV is
not considered an STD(it is imbalance of vaginal bacteria-sex partner does not need to
be treated. The microscopy slide will have very few WBC and large number clue cells.

Candida vaginal discharge - Correct Answer white in color with a thick and curd like
consistency. it frequently causes redness and itching in the vulvovagina due to
inflammation

microscopy in candidiasis - Correct Answer will show a large number of WBC,
pseudohyphae, and spores(saghetti and meatballs

candida yeast - Correct Answer normal flora of gastrointestinal tract and in some
womens vaginas

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