EFMB Fort Sill 2023 Questions and Answers 100% right
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EFMB
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EFMB
EFMB Fort Sill 2023 Questions and Answers 100% right
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine AnteriorPosterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) _____________.
Portable X-ray Machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scann...
EFMB Fort Sill 2023 Questions and
Answers 100% right
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine
AnteriorPosterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with
a(n) _____________. - answer Portable X-ray Machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable. - answer False
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? -
answer Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - answer
Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety. - answer lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is . - answer 6 Feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for . - answer FOCUSED
ABDOMINAL SONOGRAPHIC ASSESSMENT FOR TRAUMA
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of _________. -
answer 98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - answer False
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a hand held portable device. - answer TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array __ probe. - answer US
,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
__________ in certain areas of the body. - answer free intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two organs? - answer spleen and Kidney
An 18g _________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
answer antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - answer TRUE
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - answer Liver and Kidney
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of
contrast administration. - answer False
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - answer TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - answer FALSE
All trauma patients arriving at a Role __ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. - answer Role 3
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - answer
FALSE
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - answer hearing loss,
tinnitus (ringing in the ear)
aural fullness
recruitment (ear pain with loud noise)
difficulty localizing sounds
difficulty hearing in a noisy background
vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
________ or ________. - answer temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or
permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
,The ear, specifically the ________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. -
answer tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - answer TRUE
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first ___________ after injury. - answer 8 Weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the __________ scale. - answer House-
Brackmann grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - answer FALSE
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? **** - answer otic capsule
violating temporal bone fractures
secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves
trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops
activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.
benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear
perilymphatic fistula
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - answer be educated and
directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in
the middle ear? - answer treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid
containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or
ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. - answer 72 hours
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - answer TRUE
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: -
answer have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing
as soon as possible.
Patients with TTS greater than _____ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when
not otherwise contraindicated. - answer 25 dB
, What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
answer comatose patient
symptomatic inhalation injury
deep facial burns
burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at
high risk of hypothermia. - answer 20%
When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - answer
FALSE
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of ______. - answer Nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area
(TBSA) used for fluid resuscitation - answer Superficial (1st Degree) Burns
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - answer
Partial Thickness (Second Degree) Burns
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? - answer
Superficial (1st Degree) Burns
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and
often contain thrombosed vessels? - answer Full Thickness (3rd Degree) Burns
What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. -
answer Used to calculate the amount of fluids to deliver in the first hour. 10ML x
%TBSA +- 10 ML + 100ML per 10Kg above 80Kg
For children suffering burn injuries, ___ x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x body
weight in kg gives the volume for the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. - answer 3
T/F: A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. - answer
FALSE
T/F: Both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patients can result in serious
morbidity and even mortality; patients who receive over 250 mL/kg in the first 24 hours
are at increased risk for severe complications including acute respiratory distress
syndrome and both abdominal and extremity compartment syndromes. - answer
TRUE
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