All the PCCN Exam questions with all the correct answers 2024 Latest updated, Complete Verified Solution.
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PCCN
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PCCN
All the PCCN Exam questions with all the correct answers 2024 Latest updated, Complete Verified Solution.
The nurse observes that the patient's jugular veins distend in the semi-upright position to more than 5 cm above the sternal angle. This is an indication of:
fluid volume overload.
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All the PCCN Exam questions with all the correct
answers 2024 Latest updated, Complete Verified
Solution.
The nurse observes that the patient's jugular veins distend in the semi-upright
position to more than 5 cm above the sternal angle. This is an indication of:
fluid volume overload.
what is normal Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)?
5-12 mmHg
The resistance against which the left ventricle must pump to eject its volume is:
systemic vascular resistance.
When the tricuspid valve is open, central venous pressure reflects the filling
pressure in the:
right ventricle.
Tachycardia is dangerous for the patient with ischemic heart disease because of:
compromised cardiac output.
During initial examination of a critical care patient, the nurse observes wide and
convex nails and bulbous fingertips. This is evidence of:
central cyanosis.
Priorities for palpation of the patient with cardiovascular disease include:
estimating edema.
checking capillary refill
checking for DVT
arterial pulses
By blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, angiotensin-
converting enzyme inhibitors produce:
b. vasodilation.
The nurse has read that the cardiologist recommends the use of class IV drugs to
depress sinus and atrioventricular node conduction and terminate
supraventricular tachycardias in the patient at this time. The nurse will anticipate
orders for which medications?
a. Verapamil, diltiazem, or amlodipine
The nurse has administered a drug that stimulates β1-adrenergic sites. Following
administration of the drug, the nurse will assess for:
a. increased heart rate.
The nurse is observing the patient's electrocardiographic monitor after insertion
of a temporary pacemaker. Seeing a P-wave after the pacing artifact, the nurse
knows that the:
c. atrium is being paced.
The possibility of microshock when handling a temporary pacemaker can be
minimized by:
b. insulating the ends of the wires. and wearing gloves when handling the pacing wires
In the postoperative cardiovascular patient, the most frequent cause of a
decreased cardiac output is:
,a. reduced preload.
A patient is being monitored by continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) after
placement of a transvenous pacemaker. "Loss of capture" is seen on the ECG.
Which nursing intervention may correct this situation?
a. Position the patient on the left side. or reposition the leads
In analyzing the ECG strip, the nurse notices a spike before each QRS complex.
The patient's heart rate is 70 beats/min. This phenomenon is reflective of
b. pacing artifact; the pacemaker is sensing and capturing.
Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) for a patient with a mean arterial
pressure (MAP) = 95 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) = 15 mm Hg.
b. 80 mm Hg
What procedure secures an arteriovenous malformation when a pt's condition is
too unstable for surgery?
embolization that can be done to secure the lesion without surgery. When the condition
is more stable, an operation might be considered if needed.
Knowing that a patient has hypoxemia and ischemia in his brain, the nurse
anticipates which of the following?
a. Cerebrovascular dilation
The nurse's priority in eye care for the patient in a coma will be:
c. keeping the eyes moist to prevent corneal ulceration.
The patient has markedly deep, rapid respirations with a fruity breath odor. Based
on the patient's history, the nurse will:
perform a blood glucose measurement.
The patient with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
secretion will need to have the imbalance of which electrolyte corrected as soon
as possible?
Sodium
Which of the following conditions occurs when the renal tubules are unable to
reabsorb excess glucose?
Glycosuria
The patient has a waist measurement of 52 inches. His triglyceride level is 175
mg/dL, his high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol level is 32 mg/dL, and his
fasting plasma glucose level is 224 mg/dL. His blood pressure readings are
usually approximately 140/90 mm Hg. The nurse recognizes the characteristics
of:
metabolic syndrome.
To reverse the hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, the nurse will first prepare to
administer:
fluids
The nurse is caring for a patient with central diabetes insipidus (DI). The nurse
should anticipate orders for the administration of:
vasopressin
In the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), the physiological
effect is:
dilutional hyponatremia, reducing sodium concentration to critically low levels.
Which assessment findings would indicate fluid volume excess?
,edema, auscultation of a third heart sound, crackles in lungs, bounding pulses, AMS,
olguria, HTN
The report of a renal patient's laboratory results shows that the blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) level is less than 25 mg/dL. To fully understand the patient's renal
status, the nurse must consider this value along with:
c. creatinine level.
To determine whether edema in a patient's hands is due to circulatory
compromise or another cause, the nurse might:
elevate the patient's extremities for 1 hour and observe the degree of edema still
present.
Hypovolemia causes tachycardia and :
hypotension.
To avoid the complications that can result from administering furosemide (Lasix)
to stimulate urinary output, the nurse will carefully monitor:
levels of electrolytes, especially potassium.
Which dialysis method would be most appropriate for the hemodynamically
stable patient in the anuric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Intermittent hemodialysis
What are complications of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?
Air embolism, decreased inflow pressure, electrolyte imbalance
Which electrolytes pose the most potential hazard if not within normal limits for
the person with acute kidney failure?
Potassium and calcium
peaked T-waves and a widening of the QRS interval in a pt with AKI are indicative
of:
d. hyperkalemia.
A patient presents with the following: HR, 120 beats/min; BP, 80/44 mm Hg; urine
output averaging 20 mL/hr over the last 4 hours; afebrile; moist rales in the lungs
bilaterally; BUN, 84 mg/dL; creatinine, 3.4 mg/dL. What is the probable cause of
this patient's acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Left ventricular failure causing prerenal AKI
An elderly patient is in a motor vehicle accident and incurs a significant internal
hemorrhage. He is at greatest risk for which category of acute kidney injury
(AKI)?
Prerenal
A patient is admitted to the unit with the following laboratory values: urine
specific gravity, 1.010; urine osmolality, 210 mOsm/kg; BUN/Cr ratio 10:1; urine
sodium, 96 mEq/L. The urine output has been 60 mL since admission 2 hours
ago. These values are most consistent with which of the following types of acute
kidney injury (AKI)?
Intrarenal
Percussing the patient's stomach produces a tympanic sound is a sign that:
the patient's stomach is empty.
The nurse is unable to hear bowel sounds in any of the four quadrants of the
patient's abdomen. This may indicate the presence of:
ban ileus.
, Auscultation of the abdomen reveals a bruit over the left renal artery. This is an
indication of:
renal hypertension.
The nurse observes that striae on the patient's abdomen are pink and purple. This
may be a sign of:
Cushing's syndrome.
During auscultation of the patient's abdomen, the nurse hears frequent high-
pitched, tinkling sounds. This is probably evidence of:
normal bowel sounds.
The nurse has been unable to hear any bowel sounds during examination of the
patient's abdomen. The minimum interval for listening before concluding that
bowel sounds are absent is ____ minute(s).
5
During palpation of the patient's abdomen, rebound tenderness indicates:
inflammation of the peritoneum, such as with appenticitis and Chrohn's dz
Elevated alkaline phosphatase level and increasing nausea and abdominal pain
indicate:
gallbladder disease.
The patient's serum transferrin level is higher than 300 mcg/dL. The nurse will
review other laboratory results to evaluate for the possible presence of:
iron deficiency anemia.
The patient's alpha fetoprotein level is 200 ng/mL. This can indicate the presence
of ____ cancer.
liver
Knowing that the patient has advanced liver disease, the nurse expects his partial
thromboplastin time (PTT) to be in the range of ____ seconds.
50 to 75
The patient has advanced cirrhosis. Her serum albumin level is anticipated to be:
decreased.
A vasopressin drip for a patient with bleeding esophagogastric varices would be
contraindicated if the patient has a history of:
coronary artery disease
What type of formula would be most appropriate for a patient with acute
pancreatitis?
Low fat
A person with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 would be considered:
obese
Diet therapy for a hypertensive person 1 day after a myocardial infarction would
include all the following except:
a fluid-restricted diet.
Kwashiorkor malnutrition results in:
low levels of serum proteins, low lymphocyte count, and hair loss.
Significant laboratory and clinical findings in the nutritional assessment of
patient with cardiovascular disease include:
b. elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and decreased subcutaneous fat.
Serum proteins serve the function of:
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