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WGU D027 Course Material Questions And Answers
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WGU D027 Course MaterialQuestions And Answers
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - Combustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste
and by-products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring.
Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical.
-What are mitochondria responsible for? - Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for
the major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
-Which if the following can cause edema? - Increased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the
movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased
plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased
lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage
into third spaces (i.e. edema).
-Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? -
Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two
daughter cells after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the
longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage
before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials
to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase.
-What indicates hypokalemia? - Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5
mEq/L, with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the
laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific conditions and
variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement
alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.
-What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - Uterine
enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while
hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without
a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy)
in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased
cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it
is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself
creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both
,grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for
the support of a fetus.
-What regulates the sodium balance? - Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to
affect the kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
-What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? -
Hypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving
from the extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid.
Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra- and
extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the
cell to increase the ECF above normal.
-When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the
purpose of maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
-Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - pH
below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood
finds that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22
mEq/L.
-What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? -
Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which
RNA is synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified
through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
-What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - 50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the
chance of each child being heterozygous affected is 50%.
-Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive
disease? - It affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease
is that men and women will be affected by it in equal measure.
-What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the
specific point in time? - Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a
period of time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The
prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected
,patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative
risk is the measure of a risk factor effect.
-Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial
but has a larger genetic component? - Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such
as breast cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
-Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - To destroy
foreign, invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign
or invasive organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and
immune response processes of the body.
-What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? -
Increased vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects
of inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e.,
edema).
Previousquestion
-In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - Bone
marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T
lymphocytes, reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process,
these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and
thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development.
-Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor
to recipient? - Passive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune
system that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous
simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized.
Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can
arise or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source
(e.g. donor antibodies).
-What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - Increased susceptibility for
infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate
responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for
disease increases.
-What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as
acids or soaps also known as? - Irritant contact dermatitis -
, Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps)
is a manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions
of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of
the immune system and vasculature.
-Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type
viruses and a herald patch? - Pityriasis rosea -
Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions
generally associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria,
and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in
particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting
itself as a herald patch.
-What is a furuncle? - An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the
surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or
larger processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle,
though uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-
resolving or that requires local, minor treatment.
-What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell
carcinoma (SCC)? - Actinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor
lesion of SCC
-What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - Epithelial
cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire
thickness of the epithelium into the basement membrane.
-What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - Absence of normal tissue
organization -
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated,
connected via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors
lack those characteristics as well as normal tissue organization.
-Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? -
Extreme exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous
cancers, which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and
likely helps prevent endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well.
-Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - Wilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The
main causes of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use.
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