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NURS 6630 MIDTERM EXAM WINTER WEEK 6 2022

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Question 1 Is this a TRUE or FALSE statement? The following patient case is considered an example of treatment-resistant depression. B. B. is a 26-year old-female at your clinic today with the diagnosis, “treatment-resistant depression.” She is currently on Bupropion 300 mg daily and has be...

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  • July 6, 2022
  • 11
  • 2021/2022
  • Exam (elaborations)
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NURS 6630 MIDTERM EXAM
WINTER WEEK 6 2022
Course NURS-6630A-2/NURS-6630N-2/NURS-6630D-2/NURS-6630C-2-
Approaches to Treatment-2021-Winter-QTR-Term-wks-1-thru-11-
(11/29/2021-02/13/2022)-PT27
Test Midterm Exam - Week 6
Started 1/8/22 11:00 AM
Submitted 1/8/22 12:38 PM
Due Date 1/10/22 1:59 AM
Status Completed
Attempt 60 out of 100 points
Score
Time 1 hour, 38 minutes out of 2 hours and 30 minutes
Elapsed
Results Feedback
Displayed

Question 1
Is this a TRUE or FALSE statement? The following patient case is considered an
example of treatment-resistant depression.
B. B. is a 26-year old-female at your clinic today with the diagnosis, “treatment-resistant
depression.” She is currently on Bupropion 300 mg daily and has been at this dose for 6
weeks with no alleviation in depressive symptoms.

She has trialed the following medications in the past with treatment duration listed:

- Paroxetine 40 mg daily for 6 weeks

- Citalopram 20 mg daily for 2 weeks


Response “At least one trial with an antidepressant with established efficacy in
Feedback: MDD (with sufficient duration and doses) is considered to be
adequate antidepressant treatment.”

 Question 2
Ronnie presents to your clinic with tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. The symptoms
are very similar to what you would see in a patient with Parkinson’s disease. The
client was prescribed risperidone several weeks ago. What is the reason for
Ronnie’s symptoms?
Response
Feedback:
Risperidone is an antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in
the striatum. Dopamine blockade has been associated with the extrapyramidal
symptoms that are seen with antipsychotic usage.

,  Question 3
Scott is a 70-year-old man that is taking citalopram 40 mg daily. You discuss changing
citalopram to another medication or decreasing the dose. He is hesitant to change
medications since citalopram works for him. You end up decreasing his dose to 20
mg/day. He asks why you are wanting to change his medication or lower his dose. Which
of the following reasons is the main reason you made the decision to decrease his dose.




Response
Feedback:
A maximum daily dose of 20 mg/day is recommended in patients
greater than 60 years of age due to the increased risk of QT
prolongation.


 Question 4
M. B. was just diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder and pharmacotherapy is
needed. Which of the following would be a first-line treatment option for M. B.?

I. Duloxetine
II. Quetiapine
III. Diazepam
IV. Escitalopram

Response “As is true for panic and the other anxiety disorders, the SSRIs and
Feedback: SNRIS are generally considered first-line agents for the treatment of
GAD because of their favorable side effect profile….”

 Question 5
Which one of the anticonvulsants mentioned below has sufficient data to support its use
in bipolar disorder?


Response Carbamazepine has data to support its use in the treatment of
Feedback: bipolar disorder. The other medications listed do not have data to
support the use in any phase of bipolar disorder.
 Question 6
A 23-year-old female was just diagnosed with major depressive disorder and is being
started on escitalopram 10 mg daily. The patient should be counseled about which Black
Box warning?


Response “In 2004, the FDA asked manufacturers of almost all the new
Feedback: antidepressant drugs to include in their labeling a warning statement
that recommends close observation of adult and pediatric patients
treated with these drugs for worsening depression or the emergence of
suicidality."

 Question 7

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