NR 601 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 100% CORRECT (2021/2022) AID GRADE A+
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NURSING NR500 (NURSINGNR500)
Institution
Chamberlain College Of Nursing
Which FSH value is consistent with complete cessation of ovarian function?"
A. Less than 10 B. 10-25 C. 25-35 D. Greater than 40
2) Diabetes is one of the leading causes of which disease:
A. chronic lung disease B.kidney failure C.disability D. cardiac death. 3)Which antihypertensive medication ...
nr 601 final exam study guide questions and answers lates
which fsh value is consistent with complete cessation of ovarian function a less than 10 b 10 25 c 25 35 d greater than
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NR 601 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 100%
CORRECT (2021/2022) AID GRADE A+
1) "Which FSH value is consistent with complete cessation of ovarian function?"
A. Less than 10 B. 10-25 C. 25-35 D. Greater than 40
2) Diabetes is one of the leading causes of which disease:
A. chronic lung disease B.kidney failure C.disability D. cardiac death.
3)Which antihypertensive medication can be used to treat hot flashes in menopause?
A. Labatelol B. Clonidine However it has adverse effects such as dry mouth, drowsiness
and hypotension which may make it undesirable. C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Hydralazine
4) What is the least diabetogenic statin?
A. Rosuvastatin B. Simvastatin C. Atorvastatin D. Pravastatin
5) Bence Jones proteins found in a urinalysis may be indicative of:
A. Leukemia B. Lymphosarcoma C. Multiple myeloma D. All of the above
6) What is the first line medication for new type 2 diabetic?
A.Novolog B. Penicillin C. Metformin D. Glyburide
7) Protein on a urinalysis usually has a renal pathology, specific to which renal structure?
A. Glomerulous B. Renal cortex C. Medulla D. Nephron
8) What is the hA1C goal for diabetic patients with complex health status (multiple chronic
conditions)?
A. <7.5 B. <8.0 Its B. VERY complex is 8.5. I feel like that's tricky C. <8.5 D. < 9
9) Type 2 diabetes factors include?
A. Polycystic B. Obesity C. Hypotension D. Liver disease
10) Gastric bypass surgery can be performed on a patient with a BMI off.
A. 20-25 B. 40 C. 30-34 D. 25- 29
11) Signs of indicative abuse includes?
1) Weight Gain 2) Poor Hygiene 3) Lack of control 4) Increase interested in daily
activities
12) What age related changes does NOT affect urologic functioning?
A. Decreased bladder capacity B. Normal aging C. Increased PVR urine volume D.
Increased urethral resistance
13) Painful, irregular-shaped,deep red ulcers with a red halo and undermined edges. Which STD
is most likely?
A. Syphilis B. HSV (Herpes) C. Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi) D. Molluscum
contagiosum (Pox virus)
14) What is the average BG level of a HB A1C of 9.5?
A. 226 B. 216 C. 197 D. 240
A way I remember this is know that an A1C of 6 is always 126 and add 14 to get your
next AIC bG level.
15) Which STI increases in those over the age of 50 years old?
A. Syphilis B. HSV (Herpes) C. HIV D. Gonorrhea
16) Which type of incontinence is a result of bladder hypermobility?
A. Urge B. Overflow C. Stress D. Functional
Especially for those who have had vaginal deliveries. Pee when you sneeze/cough. Do
some kegals to manage
, 17) What test can detect interstitial cystitis?
A. Potassium sensitivity B. Sodium sensitivity C. CBC D. Bladder ultrasound
18) What is the first line opioid for dyspnea?
A. Percocet B.Morphine C. Tramadol D. Tylenol
19) A male complains of dysuria. Urinalysis is positive for nitrates, leukocyte esterase, and
bacteria. Which medication should be given?
A. Doxycycline X 7 days
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole X 7-10 days
C. Ciprofloxacin X 3 days D Nitrofurantoin X 14 day
20) Which patient is a contraindication for Cipro?
A Pregnant B 19 years old C hypertensive D pyelonephritis
21) What is the difference between palliative care and hospice services?
A. Hospice is provided with life expectancy of six months or less
B. Palliative care can be involves at any stage of illness.
C. Palliative care integrates psychological and spiritual aspects of care throughout the
illness from diagnosis to death
D. All of the above.
22) The Crede’s maneuver is an effective management in which UI?
A. Functional B. Urge C. Overflow D. Stress
23) Which UI is associated due to UTI, vaginitis, bladder stones, and tumors?
A. Urge B. Stress C. Functional D. Overflow
24) Which of the following is not part of the SPIKES protocol?
A. Setting B. Planning C. Strategy D. Invitation
25) What is a common characteristic of dysuria-pyuria syndrome (acute urethral syndrome)?
A. Painful urination B. WBCs on microscopic UA C. Absence of positive bacterial
culture D. All of the above
26) Often caused by Chlamydia Contraindication for testosterone therapy injection, all EXCEPT:
A. Liver disease B. Mercury allergy C. Latex allergy D. Prostrate cancer
27) If the testosterone level is below 300, what is the next step?
A. Order a serum prolactin level B. Initiate testosterone therapy C. Repeat the level in 1
month D. Refer to urologist
28) All of the following labs should be ordered in a patient with complaints of ED EXCEPT:
A. Lipid profile B. CMP and obviously add a testosterone level to those labs C. TSH D.
Fasting blood sugar
29) Risk factors for urinary in continence include:
A. Age B. Residing in long term care setting C. Cognitive impairment D.Female gender
E. All of the above
30) A patient with impaired glucose intolerance is at an increased risk of developing type 2
diabetes within how many years of onset?
A) 2 to 5 years B) 5 to 10 years C) 3 to 6 years D) within 1 year
31) What is the most commonly identified infectious agent or toxic insult in a person with
genetic predisposition for DM1?
A.) Herpes B.) Congenital Rubella C.) Chicken pox D.) MMR vaccine 32) while
pregnant All are contraindications of Metformin except
A. Stroke B. MI C. Renal disease D. Septicemia
33) When should insulin therapy begin in the management of DM2?
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