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NR602 Final Exam Practice Questions and Answers 100% Pass
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NR602 Final Exam Practice Questions and Answers 100% Pass Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum? a. Verruciform b. Plaque-like c. Vesicular d. Bullous - ANSWER-a 39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks ago, says it was normal. ...

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  • November 25, 2024
  • 153
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
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  • nr602 final exam practice questions and answers 10

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NR602 Final Exam Practice Questions and
Answers 100% Pass


Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?




a. Verruciform


b. Plaque-like


c. Vesicular


d. Bullous - ANSWER✔✔-a


39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks

ago, says it was normal. On exam, there's erythema of extern. genitalia

w/small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue cells,

but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most

appropriate treatment?




a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days
Copyright ©EMILLYCHARLOTE 2025 ACADEMIC YEAR, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. Page 1/153

,b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID


c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose


d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days - ANSWER✔✔-c


Woman c/o vaginal itching, white discharge. She is in good health except

for recent abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender vulvovaginal area

w/edema and nonmalodorous white patches. Which is the most likely

cause?




a. Bacterial vaginosis


b. Trichomonas


c. Lactobacillus overgrowth


d. Candidiasis - ANSWER✔✔-d


18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal

secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out.

What would necessitate further eval?




Copyright ©EMILLYCHARLOTE 2025 ACADEMIC YEAR, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. Page 2/153

,a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels


b. Androgen deficiency


c. Galactorrhea


d. Hirsutism - ANSWER✔✔-c


24yo female is dx'd w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used

as first-line to help control symptoms?




a. Antianxiety meds


b. Progesterone-only contraception


c. Oral steroids


d. NSAIDs - ANSWER✔✔-d


Primary amenorrhea is best described as:




a. Cessation of menstruation x6mo


b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17ho


Copyright ©EMILLYCHARLOTE 2025 ACADEMIC YEAR, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. Page 3/153

, c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13yo


d. Cessation of menstruation x6mo after menarche - ANSWER✔✔-c


25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, cervix is easily

friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile

protozoa on NS slide. This most likely represents:




a. Trichomonas


b. Mucopurulent cervicitis


c. Bacterial vaginosis


d. Gonorrhea - ANSWER✔✔-a


16yo female has h/o secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10yo, regular

cycles x2yrs, has not menstruated x4yrs. What is most frequent etiology of

this problem?




a. Eating disorder


b. Pregnancy

Copyright ©EMILLYCHARLOTE 2025 ACADEMIC YEAR, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. Page 4/153

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