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EFMB 2024 Pre Test with Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Rated A+

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EFMB 2024 Pre Test with Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Rated A+

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  • October 24, 2024
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EFMB 2024 Pre Test with Verified Answers| 100%
Correct| Rated A+



The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - ✔✔- hearing loss

- tinnitus (ringing in the ear)

- aural fullness

- recruitment (ear pain with loud noise)

- difficulty localizing sounds

- difficulty hearing in a noisy background

- vertigo.



Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ___ or ___. -
✔✔temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)



The ear, specifically the ______ , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. - ✔✔tympanic
membrane (TM)



T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - ✔✔TRUE



The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first _____
after injury. - ✔✔8 weeks



Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of facial
movement using the ______ scale. - ✔✔House-Brackmann grading



T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided
regardless of contraindications. - ✔✔FALSE

,Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - ✔✔- otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures

- secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops

- activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.



All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled
hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - ✔✔be educated and directed to self-report for evaluation
and possible treatment as soon as practicable



What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear? -
✔✔Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of
ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).



Hearing loss that persists _ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. - ✔✔72



T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - ✔✔TRUE



All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - ✔✔- have
the exposure documented

- should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible.



Patients with TTS greater than ___ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not
otherwise contraindicated. - ✔✔25 dB



What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - ✔✔-
comatose patient

- symptomatic inhalation injury

- deep facial burns

- burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA).

,Burn casualties with injuries greater than_ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia. - ✔✔20%



T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters and
cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - ✔✔FALSE



Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of __. - ✔✔Nines



Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid
resuscitation? - ✔✔Superficial (1st degree) burn



Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - ✔✔Partial thickness
burns (2nd degree)



Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? - ✔✔Superficial burns
(1st degree)



Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often contain
thrombosed vessels? - ✔✔Full thickness burns (3rd degree)



What is the Rule of 1Os burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. - ✔✔10 mL/hr
x %TBSA



For children suffering burn injuries, _ x Total Body Surface Area {TBSA) x body weight in kg gives the
volume for the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. - ✔✔3



T/F: A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. - ✔✔FALSE



T/F: Both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patients can result in serious morbidity and
even mortality; patients who receive over 250 ml/kg in the first 24 hours are at increased risk for
severe complications including acute respiratory distress syndrome and both abdominal and
extremity compartment syndromes. - ✔✔TRUE

, At 8-12 hours post-burn, if the hourly IV fluid rate exceeds 1500 ml/hr or if the projected 24 hr total fluid
volume approaches 250 ml/kg, initiate 5% _____ infusion for an adult burn patient. - ✔✔albumin
infusion



What are clinical signs of inhalation injury? - ✔✔- progressive voice changes

- soot about the mouth and nares

- hypoxia

- shortness of breath



Definitive care for US service members suffering from burn injuries is provided at ___. - ✔✔USAISR
Burn Center in San Antonio, Texas



T/F: Early ambulation and physical therapy, is critical to the long-term functional outcome in burn
patients. Once post-operative dressings are removed, perform range of motion of all affected joints.
- ✔✔TRUE



_____ is the most common infectious complication with pediatric burn patients and usually presents
within 5 days of injury. - ✔✔Cellulitis



A patient has suffered burn injuries to the entire anterior torso (chest and abdomen), the anterior and
posterior of both arms, and the anterior of his face and neck. Calculate the patient's initial burn size
using the Rule of Nines. - ✔✔40.5%



A patient has suffered burn injuries to the anterior and posterior legs and the perineum. Calculate the
patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Nines. - ✔✔37%



A patient has suffered burn injuries to the anterior of her face, neck, and torso (chest and abdomen).
Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Nines. - ✔✔22.5%



T/F: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when veterinary
personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for providing routine

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