NURS 404 Midterm questions with correct answers
An elderly patient has undergone hip replacement surgery. On the
second postoperative day, the nurse finds that the pedal pulses are absent
and the lower extremities are cold to the touch. What should the nurse
interpret from this finding?
A. It is an age-related effect.
B. The patient's hip joint has dislocated.
C. The room temperature is too cold.
D. The patient has venous thrombus formation Correct Answer-D.
The absence of pedal pulses and abnormally cold extremities indicate
that the patient has venous thrombus formation. Venous thrombus
formation occurs because of stagnation or alteration in the blood flow as
a result of immobility or injury to the vessel wall during surgery. The
thrombus may block the blood supply to the extremities. The clinical
manifestations in the patient are not age-related effects. Hip joint
dislocation may not result in absence of pedal pulses. A cool room
temperature may cause the extremities to become cold but may not lead
to an absence of pedal pulses.
The nurse assesses a patient's condition and suspects that the patient has
footdrop. Which assessment finding supports the nurse's suspicion?
A. Internal rotation of entire foot
B. Both the legs bent outward at knee
C. The foot is permanently fixed in plantar flexion
D. Legs curved inward, so knees come together as person walks Correct
Answer-C.
,Footdrop is the leg contracture in which the foot is permanently fixed in
plantar flexion, and the patient is unable to lift the toes off the ground.
Internal rotation of the entire foot is a postural abnormality called pigeon
toes. Bowleg is a condition in which the patient has both the legs bent
outward at the knee. Knock-knee is the postural abnormality in which
legs curve inward so the knees come together as the person walks.
A, B, E
The functions of the skeletal system include providing joint flexibility
and support, regulating calcium, and protecting vital organs. The
nervous system regulates movement and posture. Body alignment
contributes to balance of the body. Correct Answer-What are the
functions of the skeletal system? Select all that apply.
A. Provide support
B. Regulate calcium
C. Regulate posture
D. Contribute balance
E. Protect vital organs
B.
In osteoporosis the bones lack calcium due to demineralization.
Therefore, calcium supplements are added to the prescription to improve
,bone strength. Zinc is useful in cellular metabolism but has no role in
bone health. Sodium is important for cells to function but has no role in
promoting bone health. Iron is needed for hemoglobin production. It
does not help in managing osteoporosis related to bone changes. Correct
Answer-A 60-year-old female patient sustained a femur fracture due to a
fall in the bathroom. The patient complains of severe pain. Which
mineral supplement is likely to be added to the patient's prescription to
manage osteoporosis?
A. Zinc
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Iron
B.
The older the patient and the greater the period of immobility, which can
be significant following a hemorrhagic stroke, the greater is the number
of systems that can be affected by the immobility. Correct Answer-
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing multiple adverse effects
of immobility?
A. 1-year-old child with a hernia repair
B. 80-year-old woman who has suffered a hemorrhagic cerebrovascular
accident (CVA)
C. 51-year-old woman following a thyroidectomy
D. 38-year-old woman undergoing a hysterectomy
Spine stretching exercises is a treatment provided for patients with
lordosis. Knee braces are provided for patients with knock-knee. A
, Denis Browne splint is provided for patients with clubfoot. Bracing with
ankle-foot orthotic is provided for patients with footdrop. Correct
Answer-Which treatment is provided for patients with lordosis?
A. Knee braces
B. Denis Browne splint
C. Spine-stretching exercises
D. Bracing with ankle-foot orthotic
B.
The inability to dorsiflex and invert the feet indicates that the patient has
footdrop which is usually found in patients who are bedridden and
immobile. The foot becomes permanently fixed in plantar flexion,
making ambulation difficult. The patient is unable to lift the toes off the
ground. Exaggeration of the anterior convex curve of the lumbar spine is
called lordosis. One or both legs bent outward at the knee indicates genu
varum. Legs curved inward so that the knees come together while
walking is a sign of genu valgum. Correct Answer-A patient who has
hemiplegia is unable to dorsiflex and invert the feet. Which condition
does the patient likely have?
A. Lordosis
B. Footdrop
C. Genu varum
D. Genu valgum
The head of the femur acts as a ball and the pelvic bone as a socket, and
together they form a ball-and-socket type of joint , which is a freely
movable synovial joint. The elbow and knee joints are examples of
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