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NPLEX 1- Cardiology practice Question and Answers (Latest Update 2024) $13.49   Add to cart

Exam (elaborations)

NPLEX 1- Cardiology practice Question and Answers (Latest Update 2024)

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  • NPLEX 1- Cardiology
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  • NPLEX 1- Cardiology

Post-mortem microscopic examination of the proximal end of the left anterior descending coronary artery from a 41 year old female reveals a thrombotic occlusion arising from an atherosclerotic plaque. Which of the following underlying conditions most likely led to her death? - Correct Answer Type...

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  • August 29, 2024
  • 15
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
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  • NPLEX 1- Cardiology
  • NPLEX 1- Cardiology
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NPLEX 1- Cardiology practice Question
and Answers (Latest Update 2024)
Post-mortem microscopic examination of the proximal end of
the left anterior descending coronary artery from a 41 year
old female reveals a thrombotic occlusion arising from an
atherosclerotic plaque.

Which of the following underlying conditions most likely led to
her death? - Correct Answer ✅Type 2 diabetes



Post-mortem microscopic examination of the proximal end of
the left anterior descending coronary artery from a 41 year
old female reveals a thrombotic occlusion arising from an
atherosclerotic plaque.

Hypercholesterolemia was implicated in the pathogenesis of
her atherosclerosis. In the synthesis of cholesterol, what is
the key regulating enzyme? - Correct Answer ✅HMG Co-A
reductase



1. What is the source of the left anterior descending coronary
artery? - Correct Answer ✅Left Coronary artery



A 4-week old male has a ventricular septal defect. Physical
examination reveals a systolic murmur but there is no
evidence of cyanosis. Echocardiography shows a left-to-right

, NPLEX 1- Cardiology practice Question
and Answers (Latest Update 2024)
shunt through a defect in the membranous part of the
interventricular septum.



The membranous interventricular septum is normally formed
by the: - Correct Answer ✅Endocardial cushions



A 4-week old male has a ventricular septal defect. Physical
examination reveals a systolic murmur but there is no
evidence of cyanosis. Echocardiography shows a left-to-right
shunt through a defect in the membranous part of the
interventricular septum.



1. How have his cardiac hemodynamics changed as a result
of this left-to-right shunt? = mixing of C02 and O2 blood so
output from left ventricle is reduced (nothing will be
increased in this case) - Correct Answer ✅Cardiac output is
decreased



A 4-week old male has a ventricular septal defect. Physical
examination reveals a systolic murmur but there is no
evidence of cyanosis. Echocardiography shows a left-to-right

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