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CPPM Final Exam Study Guide With 100% Correct Solutions 2024 | Verified
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CPPM Final Exam Study Guide With 100% Correct Solutions 2024 | Verified
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CPPM Final Exam Study Guide With100% Correct Solutions 2024 | Verified
Which of the following is NOT a typical duty of a practice manager? a. Implement strategies to reduce the A/R b. Inventory control for supplies needed for minor surgeries c. Fostering a referral source for new patients d. Preparation of the patient for the physician CORRECT ANSWERS Preparation of the
patient for the physician
Which of the following includes the payment amount and denial explanations for claims submitted? a. Denial reconciliation report b. Accounts receivable report c. Explanation of benefits (EOB) d. Encounter form CORRECT ANSWERS Explanation of benefits (EOB)
You work for a primary care practice. A patient has recently suffered a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and your physician wants to send the patient to a specialist for a consultation. Which specialty would handle this type of diagnosis? a. Infectious disease b. Endocrinology c. Rheumatology d. Neurology CORRECT ANSWERS Neurology
A physician assistant (PA) is hired by a cardiology practice to help see patients in the hospital. The PA performs all the rounds and notifies the physician on call if there are any patients that need to be seen by a physician. Is it appropriate to bill for the PA's services as incident-to? a. No, incident-to services are not covered in a hospital setting. b. Yes, as long as the physician sees the patient later in the day. c. Yes, as long as the services are consistent with an established plan of care. d. No, the physician needs to see every patient in order to bill incident to. CORRECT ANSWERS No, incident-to services are not covered in a hospital setting.
What is a good way to improve efficiency and accuracy in the registration process? a. Mail an invoice rather than collect at time of service. b. Audit two records per staff member every year for accuracy. c. Scan a copy of the patient's insurance card. d. Email audit results to staff members with instructions to improve. Training takes up too much time. CORRECT ANSWERS Scan a copy of the patient's insurance card.
What percentage of communication occurs through body language? a. 35 b. 85 c. 55 d. 15 CORRECT ANSWERS 55
Which of the following is the best example of communicating in a difficult conversation? a. Arguing or disagreeing with the speaker. b. Let the person know, "I understand how you feel." c. Let the person know, "It's going to be alright." d. Provide some advice for the person who is wrong. CORRECT ANSWERS Let the person know, "I understand how you feel."
Which option is NOT a reason to append a modifier to a CPT® or HCPCS Level II code? a. Separate and distinct service performed b. Medical necessity c. Discontinued procedure d. Multiple procedures were performed CORRECT ANSWERS Medical necessity
Which two code sets are used by physicians and non-physician practitioners (NPPs) to report professional services for procedures in an outpatient setting?
I. CPT®
II. ICD-10-CM
III. ICD-10-PCS
IV. HCPCS Level II CORRECT ANSWERS CPT®
HCPCS Level II
What does the abbreviation MBI stand for? a. Medicare benefit identifier b. Medicare billing indicator c. Medicare beneficiary identifier d. Medicare benefits indicator CORRECT ANSWERS Medicare beneficiary identifier
What type of reimbursement methodology is based on the average resources required to care for an inpatient with a specific diagnosis? a. FFS b. MS-DRGs c. APCs d. NPI CORRECT ANSWERS MS-DRGs
A common billing error is invalid or truncated ICD-10-CM codes. How can you prevent this? a. Always use the code selected by the provider. b. Only use codes with seven characters. c. Make sure the code on encounter form matches the code that is billed. d. Update the practice management system when new, deleted, and revised codes are released. CORRECT ANSWERS Update the practice management system when new, deleted, and revised codes are released.
Which option is a common reason for denials? a. The provider is credentialed with multiple insurance carriers. b. The patient's insurance was terminated following a service. c. The patient did not show for a scheduled appointment. d. The service is not medically necessary. CORRECT ANSWERS The service is not medically necessary.
Which of the following is a chronological description of the development of the patient's complaints? a. Medical decision making b. History of present illness c. Chief complaint d. Medical necessity CORRECT ANSWERS History of present illness
Common performance indicators for charge entry include:
I. Days to enter charges
II. Consent to treat
III. Missing charges
IV. Coding accuracy
V. Account balance collected a. I, II, III, IV, and V b. II, III, and IV c. I, III, and IV d. I, II, and IV CORRECT ANSWERS Days to enter charges
Missing charges
Coding accuracy
In reviewing the A/R report showing a list of charges, adjustments, collections, and A/R balance by month, which statement is TRUE? a. Collections drop significantly during the summer months (June-Aug.). b. The amount of payments is increasing. c. The accounts receivable is on a worsening trend. d. Progress is being made in lowering the accounts receivable balance. CORRECT ANSWERS Progress is being made in lowering the accounts receivable balance.
What factors should a practice manager look at if there is a decrease in the revenue of the clinic? a. Patient volume and insurance delays b. Staff delays and errors c. Coding and billing delays d. All of the above CORRECT ANSWERS Patient volume and insurance delays
Staff delays and errors
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