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NP Prep Questions & Answers | 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version A patient comes to your office concerned about a gray arc visible above and below the outer part of his cornea. Upon exam, you diagnose the patient for which of the following underlying medical conditions? A. Hy...

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  • July 3, 2024
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NP Prep Questions & Answers | 100% Correct
Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version
A patient comes to your office concerned about a gray arc visible above and below the outer part of his
cornea. Upon exam, you diagnose the patient for which of the following underlying medical conditions?

A. Hyperlipidiemia

B. Ketonemia

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Presbyopia - ✔✔A. Hyperlipidemia

HLD is usually associated with arcus senilis in adults. Tx is generally aimed at controlling cholesterol and
trigylyceride levels.



Aware of the high rate of prostate cancer in middle-aged men, you routinely consider administering
cancer screens to your patients within this demographic. The earliest time a NP could begin performing
DRE of prostate on males is which of the following?

A. 45

B. 50

C. 40

D. 55 - ✔✔A. 45

Although there is some conflicting views on when digital rectal exams should be initiated, it is generally
accepted that some male patients such as African-Americans and men with a positive family history of
prostate cancer are at high risk and should be screened as early as 40 years of age. Age 45 and 50 are
also possible recomendations for screening by some organizations; however, these are not the earliest
possible ages. Lastly, 55 is not recommended for when digital rectal exams for prostate cancer should
begin



A caretaker is taking an Alzheimer's patient for a walk and hands him his jacket. However, the patient
merely looks back at the caretaker and stares, as though he is confused. What should the caretaker do?

A. Assume that the patient does not need that coat and continue the walk, carrying the coat

B. Put the jacket on the patient

C. Cancel the walk and reschedule for another time

D. Remind the patient by telling him to put his jacket on again - ✔✔D.

,The nurse practitioner should put the jack on the patient. This patient is exhibiting apraxia, an inability to
perform previously learned tasks, which is a common finding in Alzheimer's patients. The other choices
are inappropriate in the handling of the situation. The patient should have a jacket on to prevent
susceptibility to ailments. With the patient's current apraxic state, a reminder would not lead the patient
to put on the jacket as he has forgotten how to complete the task at hand. If the patient continues to be
apraxic before scheduled walks, constant rescheduling would not help to address the situation



James, 28, presents with what he thinks is an asthma attack and tightness in his chest. While taking his
medical history, you learn he has a history of severe asthma attacks. Which arterial blood gas
abnormality would you initially expect to see in James during this asthma attack?

A. Metabolic alkalosis

B Metabolic acidosis

C Respiratory alkalosis

D Respiratory acidosis - ✔✔C.

Respiratory alkalosis often occurs during an asthma attack. Respiratory alkalosis occurs as a result of
hyperventilation which elevates the blood pH. The other choices feature conditions that do not typically
occur during an asthma attack.



You have finished assessing a 37-year-old female who has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism, and
you begin a discourse concerning her treatment options. Which of the following is not typically used in
the management of hyperthyroidism?

A. Methimazole

B. Propranolol

C. Levothyroxine

D. Thiourea drugs - ✔✔C.

Levothyroxine is used only in the treatment of hypothyroidism. Propranolol can be used for treatment of
symptoms due to hyperthyroidism. Thiourea drugs are used for mild cases, small goiters, or fear of
isotopes. Radioactive iodine, thyroid surgery, and Lugol's solution are used to reduce vascularity of the
gland.



A feverish young woman comes to your clinic complaining of a runny nose and a spotty rash. She also
complains of occasional abdominal and joint pain. During the interview process, she explains she
recently returned from a trip visiting family in South Carolina. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Viral pneumonia

, B. Bacterial pneumonia

C. Lyme disease

D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever - ✔✔D.

While both Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) and Lyme disease are spread via bites from infected
ticks, RMSF is the only aforementioned disorder that presents with abdominal and joint pain. Lyme
disease presents with a distinctive "bulls-eye," macular or papular rash in 50% of cases. RMSF is less well
known than Lyme disease but, if left untreated, can be fatal. While viral and bacterial pneumonia both
present with fever and nasal congestion, the rash distinguishes RMSF from these conditions.



A patient comes to your office complaining of gnawing epigastric pain. After further inquiry, you discover
that the pain only subsides when the patient is eating. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?

A. Duodenal peptic ulcer disease

B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

C. Gastric peptic ulcer disease

D. Gastroenteritis - ✔✔A.

If a patient is experiencing epigastric pain that is relieved with eating, the most likely diagnosis is
duodenal peptic ulcer disease. Gastric peptic ulcer disease, on the other hand, is classified as gnawing
epigastric pain that is worsened by eating. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is characterized by
back flow, otherwise known as reflux, of acidic gastric contents into the esophagus, but gnawing
epigastric pain is not a finding of GERD. Lastly, gastroenteritis is a characterized by acute inflammation of
the gastric mucosa that results in vomiting, diarrhea and cramping, none of which appear in duodenal
peptic ulcer disease.



Brenda, 57, is a mother of three and was diagnosed with Prinzmetal's angina. Which medication
classification is most indicated for this patient's treatment and control?

A. Beta blockers

B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Angiotensin II converting enzyme inhibitors - ✔✔C.

Prinzmetal's angina is the result of coronary vasospasm rather than atherosclerosis; thus, calcium
channel blockers are effective in treating Prinzmetal's angina. Beta blockers can occasionally cause more
spasms in patients diagnosed with Prinzmetal's angina. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors are used to
prevent blood clots to decrease the risk of a heart attack or a stroke and are not used in the treatment of

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